How Jesus(pbuh) be God if he prayed to God?

Question

"............and he often withdrew into the wilderness and prayed" (Luke 5:16)

Meg so this is polytheism because Jesus is praying to God and you are praying to Jesus.

Answer 1

This is the big question ! And I was always replied that he was giving the example of how to pray to God, as if the ancient prophets and messengers did not know how to pray!

Note that in the Old Testament, no one prayed to God as the father, the son and holy spirit. They prayed to one God, a God which is not split into three persons. But a God which has no associates - one and only God.

If the New Testament is true, that Jesus is the son of God, then he was a blasphemer. And it was right to punish him to death. The problem is that no christian has studied the Old Testament with Jewish comments. Or else, they would have understood that the messiah is not the son of God at all.

An avatar of God praying to God (i.e himself) and beg for help on the cross, is something I can't swallow. Sorry, my intelligence repels me to accept such contradicting and unpleasant theory.

Answer 2

Good question! Jesus is not God. The Bible does not teach that Jesus is God. It in fact teaches that Jesus is the Son of God.

Colosians 1:15 calls Jesus "the firstborn of all creation". Which shows that Jesus was created, so thus he cannot be God because God was not created. Proverbs 8:22 refering to Jesus says “Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago."

Jesus himself said at John 14:28: "The Father is greater than I am."

And the Bible repeated calls Jesus the Son of God, not God.(Matthew 4:3,6; Mark 3:11; Luke 4:3; John 1:34; 3:16; Acts 9:20; 2 Corinthians 1:19; Galations 2:20; Ephesians 4:13; Hebrews 4:14; 1 John 3:8)

Answer 3

Jesus Christ is the creator, not a creature and will always be equal to the Father in this sense. Jn 1:1 says, "and the word was [uncreated] God". However, when incarnated (made flesh on earth), Jesus made a choice to submit to the Father as His head. We call this choice, the subordination (or down-ranking) of Christ to the Father.

Jesus did not give up being God, He merely began to obey the Father as though He were a creature (Jn 12:49-50). This is called "Biblical subordination". Think of the concept of subordination this way: The President of the U.S. has a role that is functionally greater than my role in society. But, both the President and I share the same position or essence (ontology) on the humanity scale: we are both human beings.

Christ’s functional subordination does not mean He gave up his ontological equality with God the Father or God the Holy Spirit. A subordination in roles is within acceptable Biblical and creedal parameters, but a subordination in POSITION or ESSENCE (the "ontological" aspect) is a heretical (non-Christian) view called subordinationism. One cannot downgrade Christ’s ontological equality with God the Father or God the Holy Spirit and claim to be a Trinitarian. One cannot claim to be a Christian and not believe in the doctrine of the Trinity.

This ontological downgrading of Christ is a mistake made by both Mormons and Jehovah Witnesses. The JWs align with the ancient Arian position of Christ as a "created being" -- differing from Mormons mainly on the point that Jesus was not in some sense eternal. JWs say Jesus was created before the universe, but was not eternal. The JWs rightly recognize Jesus' **functional subordination** to the Father; but for some reason don't understand that Trinitarianism recognizes it as well. Trinitarianism has always allowed for **functional subordination** in the Trinity. But JWs deny Jesus' **ontological equality** with God the Father. Christ is, the JWs say, a completely separate being from the Father and that the Trinity is a construct of Greek philosophy! Unfortunately, this is what the Mormons say, too, although they come to a different conclusion ultimately about the solution. This in spite of the fact that their own view, essentially Arianism, was far more dependent on Greek philosophical categories which had problems ascribing divinity to anything material.

Jesus: Whom do Men say that I am?

Authentic Trinitarianism may be viewed as a delicate balancing act between modalism and tritheism.

Church of Jesus Christ and Latter-day Saints/Mormons
* Christ is the product of a sexual relationship between the Father and a goddess. Satan is his brother.

Jehovah’s Witnesses
* Jesus (also known as Michael the archangel) is a creation and the Holy Spirit is a force.

Muslims
* Christ was a great prophet.

The True Orthodox Christian Definition of the Trinity:
** One God who eternally exists in three different persons, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, all of whom are fully God, all of whom are equal.

Answer 4

Jesus is God, just NOT the Father.

Jesus was CALLED "our GREAT GOD and SAVIOR" by an INSPIRED APOSTLE. (Titus 2:13 That’s how we should live as we wait for the blessed hope God has given us. We are waiting for Jesus Christ to appear in all his glory. He is our great God and Savior.)

Over 40 times John's Gospel refers to the divinity of Jesus. Its first verse is one of the most prominent of these. There the language explicitly states that the Word, that is Jesus, has all the divine attributes of the father but is not himself the father. That is the function of the predicate nominative form which John used in 1:1. Here is an "Exegetical Insight" from a Biblical Greek textbook talking about that passage:

The nominative case is the case that the subject is in. When the subject takes an equative verb like “is” (i.e., a verb that equates the subject with something else), then another noun also appears in the nominative case–the predicate nominative. In the sentence, “John is a man,” “John” is the subject and “man” is the predicate nominative. In English the subject and predicate nominative are distinguished by word order (the subject comes first). Not so in Greek. Since word order in Greek is quite flexible and is used for emphasis rather than for strict grammatical function, other means are used to determine subject from predicate nominative. For example, if one of the two nouns has the definite article, it is the subject.

As we have said, word order is employed especially for the sake of emphasis. Generally speaking, when a word is thrown to the front of the clause it is done so for emphasis. When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by virtue of word order it takes on emphasis. A good illustration of this is John 1:1c. The English versions typically have, “and the Word was God.” But in Greek, the word order has been reversed. It reads,

‘kai theos en ho logos’
“and God was the Word.”

"We know that “the Word” is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: “and the Word was God.” Two questions, both of theological import, should come to mind:

(1) why was 'theos'(God) thrown forward? and
(2) why does it lack the article?

In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: “What God was, the Word was” is how one translation brings out this force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word (Jesus Christ) with the person of “God” (the Father). That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John’s wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.

To state this another way, look at how the different Greek constructions would be rendered:

'kai ho logos en ho theos'=“and the Word was the God” (i.e., the Father; Sabellianism)

'kai ho logos en theos'=“and the Word was a god” (Arianism)

'kai theos en ho logos'=“and the Word was God” (Orthodoxy).

Jesus Christ is God and has all the attributes that the Father has. But he is not the first person of the Trinity. All this is concisely affirmed in 'kai theos en ho logos.'" -Daniel B. Wallace

Notice he writes, "As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism." To someone with no theological studies background that sentence can easily go unnoticed. IF the Greek said "the God was the Word" THAT would be WHAT YOU CLAIM is a Christian viewpoint, that Jesus was IDENTICALLY THE FATHER, but, THAT IS NOT THE CASE. ALSO, the text does not say "the word was 'a god.' " This point of view, which you called "polytheism," CANNOT BE VALID because of the word order & structure of the sentence.

Answer 5

Because God is a Trinity, and Jesus is a part of that Trinity. Not only so, but in coming to earth, Jesus gave up His eternal nature for a short time so that He could live among us and do what needed to be done, and in doing so He completely submitted Himself to The Father's will and authority, which, as His followers, Christians should do. When He rose from the dead, He reclaimed His eternal nature.

Answer 6

Jesus is the Son of God. He is also the Son of Man. He is 100%man and 100% God. u cant tell something that they are 100% gal and 100% boy, can u? U can only tell 50% gal and 50% boy. But Jesus was 100%man and 100% God. He had hunger, thirst, feelings. Yet He had the powers of God also. He is the Son of God who prayed to His Heavenly Father.

Answer 7

<> The Rosary isn't a prayer to Mary. The Rosary is a gadget used to help one pray the Gospels. definite, there are numerous Hail Marys linked with praying the Rosary, yet: a million) do no longer make the errors of assuming this is all approximately Mary and a couple of) do no longer forget approximately with regard to the certainty that the real substanceofthe Rosary isn't plenty interior the Our Fathers, the Hail Marys, and the honour Bes however the Mysteries of the Rosary; events that element key events interior the Bible; maximum of that are interior the Gospels; maximum of which pertain directly to Jesus. <> returned, the Rosary is the prayer of the Gospel; the best information. Any good Chistian is familiar with that the best information isn't plenty some'factor'. this is a few'physique' - Jesus. So, the quick answer is - definite, praying the Rosary does deliver one closer to Jesus.

Answer 8

How could Jesus (he is still alive) say that he existed before Abraham was born if he was not God?

John 8:58-59 Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am."

He is the same man who said of God:

"I and the Father are one."

31Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him, 32but Jesus said to them, "I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?"

33"We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."
John 10:30-33

Answer 9

Jesus and god were said to be the same person. God was also the holly spirt or holly ghost. These three people were said to all be one person. That is why one prays Father son and holly spirit. They were the same people kinda trippy huh.

Answer 10

I'm in agreement with SG The Best. I couldnt say it any better!

The Humanity Side Of Jesus in - The First Drop of Blood

He begins to pray (Luke 22: 42-44) Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me; nevertheless not my will, but
thine, be done.

And there appeared an angel unto him from heaven, strengthening him. And being in an agony he
prayed more earnestly; and his sweat was as it were great drops of blood falling to the ground.

Let’s stop here for a moment; For in this we can see, that for a brief moment, the human or the fleshly aspect of
Jesus was surfacing "If thou be willing, remove this cup from me. Jesus was 100 % God, and yet 100 % Man.

Here, I believe the humanity side of Jesus, did not want or looked forward to the suffering he knew was a head of him.

But, as Paul tells us in Philippians 2:8 "he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death." This is seen in his
words "not my will, but thine, be done."

In verses 43-44 We can see that it wasn't in the Fathers will.

For God’s reply and answer to his prayer request comes
as an angel to strengthened him. Then the reality of the fate that awaits him (from the human nature he possess) sets
in. Realizing, that the removal of the cup is not in the Fathers will, by the appearing of the angel "being in an agony
he prays more earnestly" Being in an agony…which is suffering from intense emotional pain…he prays more
earnestly…which is…showing a deep sincerity or seriousness.

"And his sweat becomes as great drops of blood falling
to the ground."

The falling of sweat as great drops of blood is showing the intensity, of the emotional pain he was suffering. For this is
a medical condition called "hemohidrosis."

This occurs when a person is in so much agony or emotional pain, that the blood vessels swells, erupting, then mixing with the sweat, comes through the sweat glans.

http://gospel-wings-of-an-eagle4.com/Greater_Vision_He_Was_So_Much_God.mp3

http://gospel-wings-of-an-eagle4.com/Mckameys_He_Went_A_Little_Farther.mp3