"What if" does absolutely nothing to confirm or refute whether something has Scriptural support. The only conclusion that can be drawn from what the Bible says about homosexuality is that God intends for homosexuals to be celibate. Homosexual orientation is not a sin--following homosexual desires into actions that the Bible prohibits is a sin. Celibacy may be a dirty word for a lot of people, but it's the only option that has clear Biblical support for homosexuals.
Before any of you go off on a rant, I know a number of gays and lesbians whose lives are totally consumed with serving the Lord, and if they hadn't told me that they were gay or lesbian, I wouldn't have known what their sexual orientation is because they're so busy serving the Lord that it doesn't matter what their orientation is. The issue is whether they--or anyone else--will choose to serve the Lord or serve themselves.
2007-04-30 18:36:45
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answer #1
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answered by Pastor Chad from JesusFreak.com 6
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You'd also have to, you know, read that bible your summarizing a little more closely. I really hate people using misread quotes from anything to lead a people to an age of misunderstanding. Jesus wasnt liberal, he wasnt conservative, he wasnt optimistic. He, as the son of God, (A part of God split off into a human form which is to complex for a human mind to comprehend) knew everything in the bible and how it was worded and exactly what it ment when worded.
He actually talks about how gay relationships is completely against the bible. It goes a little sum'n sum'n like this.
Hes talking to the dudes in white hates and crap about their sins of messin up the world that his daddy-yo made for them. And one of the sins was the unholy relationship between the couples of non-man+woman. (A bit dulled down so people dont have to wiki every other word)
And also, since Jesus knew the bible, he knew that Sodom and Gommorah werent destroyed by raining fire that God (his father) shunned the idea of homosexuality. The sins in both of those towns were of homosexuality and prostitution among many other things. Two angels went to a fellow friend of Abraham's past journeys before they split apart. And they were welcomed into this mans house, and the people came when they found out these two men had arrived and yelled at him to let them take them to their beds. And the man being hospitible, trying to save the grace of his guests offered up his virgin daughter instead, but they wanted the "men".
(The bible never records women in a crowd as a number, and niether does any other historic manuscript that is legit in that time that was run by men.) And it clearly states that men were summoning these other men. And then those two angels smot the crowd with their canes when they tried to break the door open and capture the men.
Also in the bible it says that marriage is a holy unity that is between a man and woman and only those two. Non-other, so in a sense, your question is completely illogical, because he being not of sin he would never ok the sinning of others. He only forgave them and told them to live better lives.
Please... Sit down and read... And close your mouth, if any more drool slobbers onto the keyboard you make not be able to write me a hate letter with the same keyboard you wrote this question with.
**All these scripture summaries are just that, summaries and contain no EXACT excerpts from the bible. But you can look up the exact scripture passages using a bible with a concordance and/or computerized bible software. There are some free online ones, just google them.
2007-05-01 01:42:36
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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You really believe in the words you just typed, don't you? Wow! I can see how you might see jesus as liberal in His teachings back then comparing His teachings to the Pharisees. That's why he was killed. But 'liberal' wasn't a term back then, not a notion, so you can't label Him as such. Otherwise you would also be able to label Moses as liberal compared to the Pharoah as well. In history, there was always people that spoke out against the 'norm'. That doesn't make them correct.
Jesus was correct, though, in His teachings because he is the Son of God. His is our Messiah, our Redeemer, our Saviour. Being the Son of God, He would NEVER speak against His Father's laws. He would NEVER speak against His Father's words. Thus, He would NEVER say homosexuality is an okay sexual act and that it's okay for gays to have the right to marry each other and the same rights as heterosexual couples do. If Jesus legalized gay marriage, then it would prove that Jesus is not God's Son, is not Divine, was not anything but a mere man like us and was a sinner like us.
2007-05-01 01:51:37
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Dear Time.,
It's kind of a silly question. You are right about Jesus standing up for those who are disadvantaged and how he especially has a heart for those who are poor, widowed, and exploited by others.
That being said, i don't see how legalizing gay marriage would be standing up for the disadvantaged. We live in a country where the definition of marriage from a societal standpoint has been defined by voting. People from all walks of life and different sexual orientations have the right to vote and as a society we make that decision.
Society at the present time feels that marriage should be defined between a man and a woman and not between people of the same gender (and it's not only Bible believing people who have voted in that way).
So to try to change who Jesus is and what he taught is not really the point that you are arguing is it? i think it's pretty clear that Jesus taught that homosexuality is a sin. So obviously he wouldn't legalize gay marriages.
i will say that Jesus would be opposed to the way that gay people are often treated (esp. things like hate crimes) and "threatening evangelism" tactics. i think Jesus would love gays just like he loved those who society considered outcasts, but loving someone isn't always giving them what they want- and Jesus would not change his stance on sexual orientation.
Hope that helps. Kindly,
Nickster
2007-05-01 01:35:08
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answer #4
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answered by Nickster 7
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What right does homosexual have to marry over the other non-heterosexual orientations? Even if he legalized gays, there are also those attracted to both sexes, neither sex, animals, to close relatives (such as siblings or adult child/parent), the dead, and children (pedosexuals). All recognized in the same manner as homosexual. Are you saying your homosexual has a greater right than others?
2007-05-01 02:11:58
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Time,
Jesus didn't because HE knew that GOD would nevber have approved of something that was totally wrong in the first place. We are told in the New Testament and the Ol,d That such a thing is NOT RIGHT. Time will not come for such a thing to happen. Have a great week. Read, study, and obey GOD's WORD.
Thanks,
Eds
2007-05-01 01:32:07
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answer #6
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answered by Eds 7
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Top is from article, just chopped out pieces and placed here so you can get the main idea. you can always read the whole thing through the source link.
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The rejection of homosexual behavior that is found in the Old Testament is well known
To discount this, some homosexual activists have argued that moral imperatives from the Old Testament can be dismissed since there were certain ceremonial requirements at the time—such as not eating pork, or circumcising male babies—that are no longer binding.
While the Old Testament’s ceremonial requirements are no longer binding, its moral requirements are. God may issue different ceremonies for use in different times and cultures, but his moral requirements are eternal and are binding on all cultures
Confirming this fact is the New Testament’s forceful rejection of homosexual behavior as well. In Romans 1, Paul attributes the homosexual desires of some to a refusal to acknowledge and worship God. He says, "For this reason God gave them up to dishonorable passions. Their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural, and the men likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in their own persons the due penalty for their error. And since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, God gave them up to a base mind and to improper conduct. . . . Though they know God’s decree that those who do such things deserve to die, they not only do them but approve those who practice them" (Rom. 1:26–28, 32).
Elsewhere Paul again warns that homosexual behavior is one of the sins that will deprive one of heaven: "Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Cor. 6:9–10, NIV).
All of Scripture teaches the unacceptability of homosexual behavior. But the rejection of this behavior is not an arbitrary prohibition. It, like other moral imperatives, is rooted in natural law—the design that God has built into human nature.
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Here is the main point: Homosexuality (as viewed in the Christian religion) goes against the design of God. Man & woman are the way he planned things.
Note: anyone who uses this as a reason to hate (like a certain preacher in Topeka) are NOT following God's law. God loves everyone. Hate the sin, love the sinner. We can live with people who choose something we see as sinful without being evil/hateful ourselves.
This doesn't mean we can't defend/explain our view. I have worked with many gay/lesbian individuals. I have had students who were gay come to my class regularly after school to hang out and play games or whatever. They all knew my basic belief, but I never once tried to attack/condemn them. It was simply known that I disagree with it, but will ruthlessly punish anyone who comes at you in hate.
I believe that is the message and method that should be used. Not the hate of some groups.
2007-05-01 01:35:59
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answer #7
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answered by Ray M 6
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What is the purpose of marriage? To have a family. Homosexual marriages are not God's way of bringing children into the world. If it were, then humans would be parthenogenic.
2007-05-01 01:43:28
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answer #8
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answered by MikeL 1
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I agree. But He didn't legalize gay marriage. In fact, He never spoke on marriage, except through the Apostles. He didn't come to give us a new Law of Obligations to live under, but to put us under a Law of Grace.
2007-05-01 01:32:47
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answer #9
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answered by Steve 5
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Jesus would never legalize gay marriage because homosexuality is an abomination in God's eyes. It's an abomination because it goes against the way God designed us. No matter how you might wish it otherwise, the Bible is clear on this issue. This doesn't mean that God does not love people with homosexual tendencies, but there is no way to candycoat it, to act on those tendencies is to willfully sin against God.
In the OT, we see that God ordained marriage to be between a man and a woman:
"The man said,
'This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called 'woman,
for she was taken out of man.'
For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh." -Genesis 2:23-24
In the New Testament, we see Jesus reaffirming this:
"'Haven't you read,' he replied, 'that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh?'" -Matthew 19:4-5
This is the beauty of the husband and wife uniting to become one flesh - because they originally WERE one flesh. Woman was created from Adam's rib, to be his helper and to be his wife. Marriage between a *man* and *woman* is a gift from God. It is an insitution that God blesses because He Himself ordained it. Anything else is to corrupt and defile the marriage covenant established by our Creator.
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Marakey, you're grasping at straws. I have friends and co-workers of the same sex who are dear to me also, but that doesn't mean I'm engaged in a homosexual relationship with them. There is such a thing as brotherly and sisterly love - a deeply felt love that has no sexual feelings or intent behind it.
What this really boils down to is choosing sexual desire over God's commandments. The same applies to a heterosexual male who chooses to engage in promiscuous sex with numerous partners. This is also sin, and that person also is choosing sexual desire over God. Christ came to set us free from the bondage of sin. If we continue to be enslaved to particular sins, it is not a failing on God's part. It is because we haven't surrendered our desires to God and sought His help and His power in overcoming them.
2007-05-01 02:37:35
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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