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im doing my science work for my teacher and i gotta do a boucher of schizophrenia

2007-04-29 16:50:32 · 6 answers · asked by chris j 2 in Health Mental Health

6 answers

The first two answers are wrong. Schizophrenia cannot be diagnosed if its symptoms are due to drug use.

Schizophrenia affects adults more than children. This is the only group I can think of that applies to your question.

While there may be some evidence showing that family histories of schizophrenia portend higher risk for developing psychosis, there is no real group labeled "people with family histories of schizophrenia."

Your question gets at cultural, racial, ethnic, geographic and other identity groups, and the answer is no, there is no difference in the epidemiology of schizophrenia among or between these groups. It's a world-wide illness that affects roughly the same percentage of people in each of these types of groups.

One point worth noting, however, is that people belonging to different groups may be DIAGNOSED schizophrenic at different rates even though they are experiencing it the same way. Blacks tend to be diagnosed with it more than whites in spite of all other variables held constant. There's controversy as to why (racism, communication differences, etc.) People belonging to certain other cultures, religions and geographies might not even consider it a mental disorder. Fact remains though, the prevalence is roughly the same across groups.

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EDIT: To the question below...
If a person's psychotic symptoms (delusions and hallucinations) are due to being tripped out or high on some drug, it is NOT schizophrenia and cannot be called such in a clinical context. It doesn't matter what crazy stuff you're seeing or thinking... if it's due to a drug, it's called drug intoxication, not psychosis. People with histories of drug use CAN be diagnosed with schizophrenia... but their symptoms have to originate in their neurochemistry, not from a substance.
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2007-04-29 17:05:25 · answer #1 · answered by Buying is Voting 7 · 2 0

Schizophrenia can be hereditary, It usually surfaces between middle teens and middle 20,s that is 15 to 24. You will find that it's a chemical imbalance in the neurotransmitters within the brain or chemical imbalance of serotonin serum levels, people really fear mental illness as they don't understand and it shouldn't be, it should be treated and regard an any other medical condition. As to the answer to your question the statistical is 50/50 but personally I think more prevalent in males.

2007-04-30 00:02:36 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Idb83, I am interested in your answer, about schizophrenia not being able to be diagnosed in a drug user? How so? Does this mean that if you are/were a drug user,you can not suffer from schizophrenia?

2007-04-30 17:19:34 · answer #3 · answered by Pixie 1 · 0 0

Yes, people with bipolar disorder are more apt to acquire schizophrenia. I know this for a fact. My psychiatrist told me.

Edit: The person above me seems to have spit out a bunch of facts she picked up from some random site. I'm bipolar and know MANY bipolar people and what I say is TRUE

2007-04-30 00:28:04 · answer #4 · answered by My name here 1 · 0 1

Yes if a person takes crack, cocaine and heroin. Maybe if you have a parent who is alcoholic. Crystal meth is said to make holes in your brain.

2007-04-30 00:02:29 · answer #5 · answered by ? 6 · 0 1

yes - drug users and those with a family history of it.
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2007-04-29 23:55:29 · answer #6 · answered by raspberryswirrrl 6 · 0 1

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