Did Jesus say WOMEN who wear mens clothes are an Abomination ?

Question

Do Christians believe JESUS is the GOD of the Old Testament?

The Trinity contends that all three parts of God are one without any separation between them otherwise it would be proven to be polytheism.

Therefore, according to Christianity the God of the Old Testament is Jesus.

If you say yes, then you cannot ever deny that he sent the commandments written in the Old Testament.

Someone can say they don’t follow them anymore…ok…. But if they ever deny that he made these commands then JESUS was not the GOD of the Old Testament.

Here is one command JESUS sent down:


“A woman shall not wear a man's garment, nor shall a man put on a woman's cloak, for whoever does these things is an abomination to the LORD your God.” ----- Deuteronomy 22:5


If a Christian denies it was ever sent down by Jesus then either Jesus is not their God or they don’t believe that the Bible is the word of God.

Whether these are still enforced or whether these were sent millenniums ago…… are not the question.

The eye opener is that Christians cannot deny that according to their faith JESUS at one time sent this COMMAND down for WOMEN.

Answer 1

Jesus was kind of busy healing the sick, bringing reform to the temple, taking a sabbatical, coming back, getting betrayed, crucified, resurrecting, you know, all of that. He really didn't have time to worry about what anyone was wearing at that time or in the future. He only had 33 years, and He really had to prioritize His time and efforts.

Answer 2

Okay, good question. The bible is old, you know that. Things were written that could really only be understood back then, in the context of that time. Believe it or not, that phrase was meant to protect the slaves. Slavery was a fact, back then. There are many other examples in the bible, that look insane to us today. But, it is old testament stuff. If you really wanted to find out, you could talk to a rabbi, or Christian priest who is a scholar, to find out what the heck those references were about. Then, it could be explained to you. I can't do it, because it's too complex. And, I know your next question: why didn't God just say, "no more slavery". It had something to do with working with things how they were, at the time. And, as a Catholic, I don't believe that everything in the Old Testament was guided by God. Much of it is the history of the Jewish people, and how they tried to follow the word of God. It was not easy stuff back then. Jesus changed many things in the old testament. He made new rules, which commanded more mercy, and changed how the Law was being interepreted, wrongly. For example, he said that divorce was wrong. Well, this actually protected women. Sorry I can't help more.

Answer 3

Lots of questions there.. I can give you my opinions only.

1. Jesus was with God when He created the heavens and the earth.. "Let us make man in our image".

2. Even though God gave Moses the commandments in the OT, they were brought into the NT.. John 14:15 "If ye love me, keep my commandments. ."

3. I believe where the Bible says for women not to wear man's clothing has two meanings.. if you want to take the literal meaning, okay, that's your prerogative.. but remember that back then men didn't wear clothing like they do today.

However, I believe it means for a woman not to take on the Mantle, meaning the appearance, attitude and look of BEING a man, ditto for men.

Answer 4

When Jesus came to earth He changed a lot of things. What He didnt change, however, were the ten commandments. but all the other laws found in leviticus, numbers, deuteronomy, etc arent relevant to today. Today we focus more on the laws found in the New Testament when Jesus came down to make it a little easier to get to Heaven.

Answer 5

NO... Your contention about "trinity" is FALSE. John 1:1 indicates that Jesus is NOT HIMSELF the Father, BUT that he HAS ALL THE DIVINE ATTRIBUTES of the Father.

Here is an "Exegetical Insight" from a Biblical Greek textbook talking about that passage and its significance. The Greek language description is a little tedious, but it is not essential to understand the concept the author is presenting:
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The nominative case is the case that the subject is in. When the subject takes an equative verb like “is” (i.e., a verb that equates the subject with something else), then another noun also appears in the nominative case–the predicate nominative. In the sentence, “John is a man,” “John” is the subject and “man” is the predicate nominative. In English the subject and predicate nominative are distinguished by word order (the subject comes first). Not so in Greek. Since word order in Greek is quite flexible and is used for emphasis rather than for strict grammatical function, other means are used to determine subject from predicate nominative. For example, if one of the two nouns has the definite article, it is the subject.

As we have said, word order is employed especially for the sake of emphasis. Generally speaking, when a word is thrown to the front of the clause it is done so for emphasis. When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by virtue of word order it takes on emphasis. A good illustration of this is John 1:1c. The English versions typically have, “and the Word was God.” But in Greek, the word order has been reversed. It reads,

‘kai theos en ho logos’
“and God was the Word.”

"We know that “the Word” is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: “and the Word was God.” Two questions, both of theological import, should come to mind:

(1) Why was 'theos' (God) thrown forward?
and
(2) Why does it lack the article?

In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: “What God was, the Word was” is how one translation brings out this force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word (Jesus Christ) with the person of “God” (the Father). That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John’s wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.

To state this another way, look at how the different Greek constructions would be rendered:

'kai ho logos en ho theos'=“and the Word was the God” (i.e., the Father; Sabellianism)

'kai ho logos en theos'=“and the Word was a god” (Arianism)

'kai theos en ho logos'=“and the Word was God” (Orthodoxy).

Jesus Christ is God and has all the attributes that the Father has. But he is not the first person of the Trinity. All this is concisely affirmed in 'kai theos en ho logos.'"

-Daniel B. Wallace

Wallace is quoted in "Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar,"
William D. Mounce, Copyright © 1993 by William D. Mounce.
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As for the law, IT IS NO LONGER IN EFFECT! This was PROPHESIED BY JESUS and explained several times in Paul's writings.

Ephesians 2:15 Through his body on the cross, Christ put an END to the LAW WITH ALL ITS COMMANDS AND RULES. He wanted to create one new group of people out of the two. He wanted to make peace between them.

Colossians 2:14 He wiped out the written Law with its rules. The Law was against us. It opposed us. He took it away and nailed it to the cross.

Galatians 2:16 ...No one can be made right with God by obeying the law.

Galatians 2:21 ...What if a person could become right with God by obeying the law? Then Christ died for nothing!

Romans 3:20 So it can’t be said that anyone will be made right with God by obeying the law. Not at all! The law makes us more aware of our sin. 21 But now God has shown us how to become right with him. The Law and the Prophets give witness to this. It has nothing to do with obeying the law.

Galatians 5:4 Some of you are trying to be made right with God by obeying the law. You have been separated from Christ. You have fallen away from God’s grace... The ONLY verse that talks about falling from grace, and they did it by trying to follow the law!

Jesus said he didn’t come to destroy the law, but to fulfill it. (Matt 5:17) The effect was the same. Once fulfilled it was no longer in effect. The very next verse, Matthew 5:18, looks forward to the time when the law would be set aside. "...Not even the smallest stroke of a pen will disappear from the Law UNTIL EVERYTHING IS COMPLETED." This “UNTIL” clause reinforces the temporary nature of the law. It ONLY makes sense when we understand that it was intended from the beginning to be set aside.

On the cross, Jesus' last recorded saying, "It is finished," is an important milestone. Because of Jesus life, Satan had been defeated. The law was finished and would no longer stand between God and mankind.

The 10 commandments along with the rest of the law ("commands and rules" from Ephesians 2:15) were "set aside" when they were fulfilled or completed at Jesus' resurrection. We are no longer bound by that law.

Answer 6

If you translate this correctly,this means that a woman should not have sex with another woman nor a man with another man

Answer 7

Yes. And what is your point?

Don't you find it still confusing when you look at someone and cannot decide if its a man or a woman?