2007-04-29 04:40:34 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
no, they are not semtic at all, they are just jewish converts. Arabs are semetic.
2007-04-29 04:43:19 · answer #1 · answered by Fowl Language 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
A semite is one whose native language is a semitic language -- Hebrew, Aramaic, Arabic, etc (there are many!). Arabs are not a race any more than Jews are a race. If a caucasian, *****, or Asian is born in the Middle East and learns a semitic language before any other language, he is a Semite forever more!
The whole concept of race should be discarded -- it has mostly been used to discredit "others."
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2007-04-30 10:15:31 · answer #2 · answered by Hatikvah 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Nah- but then by the same token it is proven that the Khazars are NOT the ancestors of most ashkenacic Jews- they are merely one branch of them. Genetic studies have linked Askenazi Jews to the ME and mediteranean basin region proving their semitic origin even though surface features have drifted with their two millenia exile from Israel.
2007-04-30 06:22:43 · answer #3 · answered by allonyoav 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well first off the Khazars were closer to Turks than Europens
secondly the vast majority of Ashkinazic Jews today have DNA that points them to the middle east thus making them semitic.
2007-04-30 07:50:44 · answer #4 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, they were Asians.
2007-04-29 21:43:12 · answer #5 · answered by Melanie Mue 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋