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This is very strange, since Sarah was also Abraham's half-sister. If that is the case, what does that make Isaac? Is he superior to Ishmael because he (Isaac) was born to a woman in her old age, and Ishmael was not? Neither woman was superior to the other.

Besides, what woman in her right mind would permit her husband to have an adulterous relationship just to preserve his seed? How is that showing respect? How could Abraham just lie down with a woman he wasn't married to? Was he that desperate? How could he just dishonor her by not marrying her?

Neither Ishmael nor Isaac had any control over whom their mothers would be. Only Almighty God had control over that.
Sarah could have been the mother of all of Abraham's children during her childbearing years, but she wasn't. If she was childless during her childbearing years, it was by Divine Decree. If Isaac was meant to be the first-born, that would have already happened.

2007-04-28 14:29:51 · 24 answers · asked by Shafeeqah 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

24 answers

Abraham didn't commit adultery. He married the servant. It was legal back then, you know. Sarah gave permission because she owned the servant, so it was like getting her own son.

Added:

Abraham did have concubines, as shown in Genesis 25:1-6:

Genesis 25:1-6
1 Then again Abraham took a wife, and her name was Keturah.... [and she bore sons...]
5 ¶ And Abraham gave all that he had unto Isaac.
6 But unto the sons of the concubines, which Abraham had, Abraham gave gifts, and sent them away from Isaac his son, while he yet lived, eastward, unto the ceast country.

Since Isaac is differentiated from all his brothers ie "the sons of the concubines," this seems to imply that any wife after Sarah, was referred to as a concubine - even Keturah, whom Abraham "took to wife" after Sarah died. These wives were considered as holy and honorable as the first wife, although their sons did not receive the birthright, nor become "heirs of the Covenant".

It was very important for Abraham to produce seed, because "in his seed" all families/nations of the earth would be blessed (Gen. 22:17-18; 28:14; ). In Gen. 22:18, God says to Abraham that the reason for this blessing was "because thou hast obeyed my voice." Abraham was obedient to God. From this we can assume that God did not consider him to have broken the law of chastity (ie committed adultery).

Sarah was a righteous woman and loved the Lord, so she was willing to give her bondmaid in order that the Lord's promises to man could be fulfilled. There was no disrespect in that for Sarah (because she gave permission) nor for Hagar (she became very proud when she conceived - see Gen 16:4).

Abraham respected Sarah's rights as his first wife, and as Hagar's owner (Gen. 16:5-6). If Hagar had not become rude towards Sarah, they could have all dwelt together in harmony.

Isaac was the "first born" because Sarah was the first wife, but Hagar and Ishmael did not go without their own special blessings (see Gen. 16:8-12, and 17:20). (The name "Ishmael" means "God hears".) An angel of the Lord visited Hagar, showing her importance in His plans. (Gen. 21:1-21 gives more insight into the Lord's will for Hagar.)

Whether Sarah was childless by Divine Decree or whether it was a natural defect is not explained in the Bible (I think), but if she had not been barren, Ishmael would never have been born. Ishmael and his decendants play a very important part in the destiny of mankind, which destiny is not made particularly clear in the Bible, but like Abraham, we can trust that God knows what he's doing.

Throughout this whole story there is a great deal of interraction between the heavens and the earth. Angels visit, Abraham hears the voice of the Lord, and (in Gen 17:1) the Lord actually appears (in person) before Abraham. This sets a precedent which, to me, shows the pattern that we can expect from the Lord. I certainly believe that these kinds of interractions between heaven and earth have happened in the recent past, and that we have a living prophet on earth today. (It is from the words of latter-day prophets that I have gotten my perspective on the story of Abraham, Sarah and Hagar.)

2007-04-28 14:35:31 · answer #1 · answered by MumOf5 6 · 0 1

It is not considered adultery in the early ages specially if the wife thinks that her husband have to have a child of his own blood much more of a son if she do not thinks that she can give it to him. Normally it is the woman who even suggest as to whom his husband should plant his seed. Abraham was considered a great man of their time and people around him would want someone in his bloodline to continue that greatness. Much more if he was a man who was able to own a big property and successful livelihood business, the more his legacy must be continued by his own bloodline or descendants.
Yshmael was the real first born of Abraham if you will talk about technicalities. Since the promise of God was the child should be born by both Abraham and Sarah (which they got tired waiting for) so it became official in the eyes of God that Isaac to be considered the first born. That is where your "Divine decree" applied.
Adultery is considered as such when it was committed without the knowledge of the partner which is also called cheating. That is when you defile the sanctity of your marriage vows.
Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines, he had never made God angry by the actions but what made God furious was when he allowed some of his wives to put up temples for their own God.

2007-04-28 14:55:12 · answer #2 · answered by Rallie Florencio C 7 · 1 0

"What woman in her right mind would permit her husband to have an adulterous relationship just to preserve his seed?"
--You are uninformed and making judgment calls based on modern day presuppositions.
Surrogate motherhood was carried out through servant women on a regular basis in antiquity. Just because you find in untenable makes absolutely no difference. Abram's problem was that he took matters into his own hands. God told him to await the promise: his own child, his own seed through his own wife Sarah. They called him laughter (Isaac) because it was the impossible promise come true, leading to great joy. It was a promise that was fulfilled regardless of the modern day practices.
Finally, the issue was never "who will be born first" but who will come from Sarah. That is the entire point of Genesis 15. Consequently, this is the chapter that Abraham was declared righteous based solely on his faith...not a lick upon his works or his circumcision (which had not yet occurred).

2007-04-28 14:43:08 · answer #3 · answered by mesatratah 2 · 2 0

I think Sarah was desperate to have a child. She knew God had promise them a son, but like any human she wasn't thinking that God's time and her timing are different.

I'm not saying that Ishmael was a mistake, but Abe clearly shouldn't have had sex with Hagar, first of all, she wasn't his faith and we are to not be unequally yoked. He had to know in his heart of hearts, that this would have caused more trouble than good in the long run. Hagar wouldn't just hand over her child to Sarah, what women would?

Issac was the promised see, God clearly told Abraham that, he should have been firm and told Sarah that no he was not sleeping with another woman, but he was human too, and their weakness was for a child, no matter the outcome, they thought God needed their help, which is wrong, God doesn't need our help.

The sad thing is, had Ishmael had been born to Sarah, he would not have been resentful of Issac and the two brothers would have had a good relationship.

2007-04-28 14:39:56 · answer #4 · answered by the pink baker 6 · 0 1

1. In early Biblical times, it was common for siblings to marry. This is most likely how Cain obtained his wife and how Seth obtained his.
2. In the culture in which Abraham and Sarah lived, it was common for a man to take more than one wife and for a barren woman to give his handmaiden over to her husband for procreation. Abraham did not sleep with Sarah's handmaiden out of a desire for an extramarital relationship. It was purely for procreative purposes. Since the handmaiden was considered Sarah's property, it was not consider adultery by the participants and marriage would not have been considered. In their culture, sleeping with your wife's handmaiden-with your wife's permission- in order to have children was looked at as little more than wearing your wife's coat. Property was to be used, not cherished.
3. Notice that God rebuked both Abraham and Sarah for this "arrangement."

2007-04-28 14:46:22 · answer #5 · answered by James F 3 · 0 0

Okay, go back and read the Bible before you start making thing up. First it was Sarah's idea for him to impregnate her maiden. But, after she, herself had Isaac, she became jealous.

At the time, it was not uncommon for men the have concubines, as it allowed women to be attached to more successful men, rather than being stuck with just a goat herder,. Much the same thing happens today, in that women will dump one man for another they think is more successful.

2007-04-28 14:50:44 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Sarah was very upset,impatient, past her years and it was looked at as a curse to not be able to bare children. God waited for it to happen to produce the bad seed and the good seed.This is what is going on now in the middle east today. Man's (Abraham and Sarah) were foolish and took it upon themselves to full fill God's promise to for they thought it was too late in their life and asked their much younger maid servant to complete the promise. God is not too late for anything and he blesses and shows mercy to whom he chooses.

2007-04-28 14:41:15 · answer #7 · answered by Dennis James 5 · 1 0

he didn't commit adultary...

"In Judaism, adultery was forbidden in the seventh commandment of the Ten Commandments, but this did not apply to a married man having relations with an unmarried woman. Only a married woman engaging in sexual intercourse with another man counted as adultery, in which case both the woman and the man were considered guilty [4].

In the Mosaic Law, as in the old Roman Law, adultery meant only the carnal intercourse of a wife with a man who was not her lawful husband. The intercourse of a married man with a single woman was not accounted adultery, but fornication. The penal statute on the subject, in Leviticus, 20:10, makes this clear: "If any man commit adultery with the wife of another and defile his neighbor's wife, let them be put to death both the adulterer and the adulteress" (see also Deuteronomy 22:22). This was quite in keeping with the prevailing practice of polygamy among the Israelites."

2007-04-28 14:36:16 · answer #8 · answered by W K 2 · 1 1

First of all, in those days not to have a child was a humiliation to the woman and that is why Sarah gave Haggi as a concubine to Abraham so could have an heir.
Jehovah said that the Christ would come from the free woman (Sarah) and not from the slave (Haggi)

2007-04-28 14:41:37 · answer #9 · answered by Here I Am 7 · 2 1

It was acceptable at that time. Things were very different under the old laws in the Old Testament.Sarah want Abraham to have children so she gave him her maiden.they were not equal.One was a wife and the other was an handmaiden concubine.

2007-04-28 14:36:29 · answer #10 · answered by ♥ Mel 7 · 1 0

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