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or just the friut of the daughter plant?

2007-04-28 13:48:38 · 3 answers · asked by prophet8724 2 in Science & Mathematics Botany

3 answers

The difference will be in the embryo that is in the seed produced by the cross-pollination. The fruit belongs to the parent plant. The fruit is made by the ovary of the pistil enlarging and thickening, so it hasn't been genetically altered by pollination of any sort.

2007-04-28 13:56:56 · answer #1 · answered by ecolink 7 · 1 0

seed producers do this all the time.

lets say you want seedless water melon. you take plant "A" and place the pollen from plant "B" in the flowers. this plant will make a fruit which contains seeds, but the genetic material that is held in the seeds in that watermelon will grow a plant that produces seedless fruit. THE ORIGINAL PLANTS ARE NOT CHANGED ONLY THE OFFSPRING THAT ARE FORMED HAVE THE DIFFERENT GENES. the only way to get more "C" plants (which have seed less fruit) are to go back and cross more "A" and "B" plants to get "C" seeds.

does this make sense?

2007-04-28 15:54:19 · answer #2 · answered by Bio-student Again(aka nursegirl) 4 · 0 0

Just the fruit that came from the seeds that were the result of cross polination

2007-04-28 13:53:46 · answer #3 · answered by michael971 7 · 0 0

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