Jesus spoke of himself as the Son of Man in the Gospel of John, but there refer to him as the Son of God, what is the difference?
2007-04-28 07:11:00 · 16 answers · asked by MoPleasure4U 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Jesus referred to himself as 'The son of man' his deification began with the apostles who started calling him 'the son of god'. Jesus said he was 'of the father' referring that he was man, made in the image of god, as Adam. He also never claimed he was a king, "it is you who say it is so". He probably had an inkling of what could possibly happen, but did nothing to dispute it.
Therefore the difference between the 'Son of Man' and the 'Son of God' would be faith in Christianity as a religion
2007-04-28 12:37:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Daniel 7:13 is the prophesy that identifies Yhshua as the Messiah and that is why he calls himself the "son of man". Also please read Revelation 1:13
Yhshua is also YHWH's only-begotten son; the firstborn of all creation who, after being created by YHWH, created the universe together along-side his Almighty Father YHWH. So he is the "son of God"
Please read the following Scriptures:
John 20:17
John 17:3-5
John 5:19
John 14:28
Mark 10:18
Matthew 26:39
John 8:17-18
Mark 13:32
Matthew 20:23
Matthew 3:17
Matthew 14:23
Mark 1:35
Mark 6:46
Mark 14:32
Luke 6:12
Colossians 1:15
John 3:16
Revelation 3:12
1 Corinthians 15:24-28
Acts 3:13
Philippians 2:6
Matthew 26:64
Mark 14:62
Luke 22:69
Acts 2:33-36
Acts 5:30, 31
Acts 7:55, 56
Romans 8:34
Ephesians 1:17-21
Psalm 110:1
Hebrews 10:13
Hebrews 12:2
1 Peter 3:22
agape!
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2007-04-28 11:56:37 · answer #2 · answered by seeker 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. What does this mean? Does not the Bible say Jesus was the Son of God? How then could Jesus also be the Son of Man? A first meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is as a reference to the prophecy of Daniel 7:13-14, "I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought Him near before Him. And there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve Him: His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed." The description "Son of Man" was a Messianic title. Jesus is the one who was given dominion and glory and a kingdom. When Jesus used this phrase related to Himself, He was assigning the “Son of Man” prophecy to Himself. The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. He was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.
2007-04-28 09:01:01 · answer #3 · answered by Freedom 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The difference is Jesus referred to himself as the son of man and people referred to him as the son of God. But something no one notices (or at least they dont point out) is that when Jesus was telling the beatitudes he said, "Blessed are the peacemakers, for they will be called sons of God" It is very likely that the people who wrote the gospels saw Jesus as a peacemaker and therefore called him the son of God.
2007-04-28 07:20:43 · answer #4 · answered by Mo 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
They are obviously BOTH Jesus! He was born by the Holy Spirit into a human woman, Mary. Therefore He is the Son of God. The human woman (Mary) is a part of God's creation Mankind. Therefore Jesus Is also the Son of Man.
2007-04-28 07:15:25 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
The phrase, 'son of man', simply means a decendent of Adam -- in other words, a human being. Jesus also used it as a way of referring to himself in a humble manner -- instead of saying 'me' or 'I'.
Before Jesus was conceived, he was God and with God (John 1:1). But in the process of becoming human, he gave up his godliness -- his power and immortality (Philippians 2:5-7). But he was begotten by God, therefore, Jesus was both the son of God AND the son of man -- begotten by God, and conceived in Mary. Also, having God's spirit in full measure, Jesus was also begotten of God as a spirit being while he walked the earth.
When he rose from the dead, he was born into the family of God as his first born son.
Christians are also begotten by God, through his holy spirit in them, which also makes them sons (children) of God. And when they are resurrected, they too will be born into the family of God and be like Jesus (1John 3:2).
2007-04-28 13:59:24 · answer #6 · answered by BC 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The son of God refers to God's Son: (us), whole, perfect, complete, one with God; the son of man refers to the self that we made when we became afraid, and fell into sleep, where we dream we are a multitude. But we remain as created.
2007-04-28 16:02:03 · answer #7 · answered by Sky in the Grass 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
God have no son and if God wanted son the first will be Adam because he was created by God no mother no father.
If you believe that Jesus is the God son or son God, the different will be that Jesus came 2000 years and God nu beginning no end.
Do you think the one who created all must be father? and if he is father why he let his son humiliated and killed in such way? and if he paid for your sin, to who he paid that?
Jesus is great, Jesus is the prophet and the word of God ,and he came to show the truth to people and to call them to worship his God and their God ,our God .
Think deeply .
2007-04-28 07:31:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
I believe he said he was the son of man cuss he was going to be crucified, for man had the power over him. When he comes back he will be the son of God, and then man will be under his feet if u r against him.
2007-04-28 07:24:39 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
There is no difference. Both are the same person. It is what the terms stand for. Jesus was born from a woman so he is the son of a man. Jesus is God in the flesh born of the Holy Spirit without a human to impregnate this woman so he is both God and man He is the Son of God.
2007-04-28 07:13:55 · answer #10 · answered by 1saintofGod 6 · 0⤊ 5⤋