English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

my experience indicates the latter, but i want to know what you know .

2007-04-27 13:31:25 · 4 answers · asked by michael n 6 in Society & Culture Languages

so if i were to say programmert zerstoren it would be implied that i meant programmed to destroy?

2007-04-27 13:42:09 · update #1

4 answers

There are several german words for to.In your example, the appropriate translation would be :
"Programmiert um zu zerstören" or "Programmiert zum Zerstören"

2007-04-27 13:52:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

Yes, there is, but not the same way as in english. The corresponding german word to the english 'to' is 'zu', with the same pronounce.

2007-04-27 21:42:20 · answer #2 · answered by Falco 7 · 1 0

If you mean "to" as in "I am am going to Germany this year", there is a word for that in German. But in many languages, if you are using a verb, such as "to eat" or "to work," the word "to" is implied in the verb used, as an infinitive. So then it is not a separate word.

2007-04-27 20:41:16 · answer #3 · answered by hispowr4u 1 · 1 1

if it is in the context of going to a place, the word "zu" is used.
if it is used in a verb like "to do" it is not used.

Example: Ulla fahrt zu ihre haus.

Ulla drives to her house.

2007-04-27 20:44:17 · answer #4 · answered by electro_johnny 3 · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers