It's interesting that those who believe in the Trinity can overlook the many passages, such as this one, that clearly indicate Jesus and his Father are not the same person, nor are they two sides of a three sided entity.
The ancient Israelites did not believe in a triune God, and neither did the first century Christians, of which the gospel writers and Paul were associated. In fact, as a Jew, Jesus himself did not believe in a trinity of Gods. He believed in and worshipped one God, Jehovah (YHWH), as did the nation as a whole, per God's instructions.
The trinity doctrine has been a staple of pagan religions for thousands of years, dating back to such people as the Babylonians, Assyrians and Egyptians. All these empires were ones that God instructed His people to keep separate from. If they all had the same beliefs, why require the Israelites to reject those false religions and idols?
The belief in a triune, or godhead, wasn't actually a church doctrine until the fourth century CE- over 300 years after the death of the apostles and more than enough time for the infiltration of false prophets and teachings that were predicted in the writings of Paul, Luke, John, Peter and others.
Jesus told his disciples that he came to do the will of his Father, Jehovah God. If Jesus were God, as many assert, why not just say that he came to do his own will? Why bother talking to himself? Praying to himself? Why tell others that he was lower than his father? That he did nothing of his own accord? The scriptures often refer to one like "the son of man" that is at the right hand of God. Jesus was called the "son of man" many times- why show them as two distinct people if they are one?
It makes no sense for a God who gave us the Bible, which outlines His plan for mankind and the hope for our future, include something as nonsensical and complicated as the trinity? God made the rest of it simple enough- why add the burden of a "God is three, but God is one" ideaology?
Many say 'but Jesus said he and the Father were one." Yes, he did. Genesis also says that when a man and woman marry the two of them must "become one flesh." We all know that isn't physically possible- the term is figurative, and demonstrates the close relationship, affection and mindset a successful married couple will share. As God's only begotten son and firstborn of creation, Jesus has known God longer than anyone else and mirrors His attributes perfectly. Kind of like an older couple that has been married for decades- their mannerisms and habits, and often even physical appearance begin to mirror that of one another.
This close relationship is why Jesus was able to say that those who had seen him had seen the Father. The Bible clearly says that no man may see God and yet live- when Moses was in God's presence on Mt. Sinai his face emitted rays that were so intense they scared the awaiting Israelites. Imagine what would happen to a person who actually was able to behold God.
Agape :0)
2007-04-26 08:13:05
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answer #1
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answered by danni_d21 4
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The Father sent the Son. Not only is it true that In his incarnation Jesus humbled himself (Philippians 2), the Bible reveals different roles within the godhead. The Gospel of John is the most powerfully trinitarian document in history. Verses such as John1:1 and John 10:30 quite clearly teach Christ's deity. There are scores of passages from the rest of the NT which show Christ was called God and had the prerogatives and characteristics unique to deity (William Evan's "The Great Doctrines of the Bible" has a good listing of and commentary on these. Despite these things you have passages such as the one you cite and many others such as the ones in John that show Jesus praying to the Father, that clearly indicate that the father and the son are not the same person. You have a person described as and called God who is yet a different person than the Father and the Holy Spirit. The only word to describe this biblical revelation is "trinity."
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Update:
I think your difficulty is in trying to understand parts of the Bible without fully considering these in the light of the whole context of Scripture. It is easy to take one verse out of this larger context and misunderstand it. Since Jesus and the Father are clearly different persons it is quite accurate to say that his teaching was not his own (especially during his earthly ministry) even though Christ is indeed, as the Bible clearly reveals, truly deity. I applaud your attempts to understand the Bible. Please consider reading the book by Willian Evans or other credible trinitarian scholars. An excellent choice for you would be Rob Bownan's "Why You Should Believe in the Trinity." These books won't hurt you. You have nothing to fear from an objective consideration of the truth. Isn't this important enough to objectively research? I have read may works from your perspective. How many scholarly expositions of the trinity have you read with an open mind to hear Jehovah's truth on this important matter? Please pray about this. I feel a real compassion for you and admire your zeal. BTW, those who are saying the church was not trinitarian until the Nicean council are woefully ignorant of church history. Thanks for asking the question. With so much at stake I pray that you are open to answers that may not fit your presupositions. God bless you, Jason.
2007-04-26 08:06:53
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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There's not much i can add except that in John the 7th chapter it was 32CE and while at the festival of tabernacles the chief priests and Pharisees looked for an opportunity to get hold of Jesus to kill him.
Jehovah evidentally used his son to convey information and instructions to others of his family of spirit sons, even as he used that son to deliver his message to humans on earth. Showing that he was God's Word or Spokesman, Jesus said to his Jewish listeners: "What I teach is not mine, but belongs to him that sent me. If anyone desires to do Hid will, he will know concerning the teaching whether it is from God or I speak of my own originality".
Doubtless on many occasions during his prehuman existence as the Word, Jesus acted as Jehovah's Spokesman to persons on earth. While certain texts make clear that he did so through angelic representatives.
In the majority of the cases Jehovah, reasonably spoke through the Word. He likely did so in Eden, for on two of the three occasions when mentioned of God's speaking there, the record specifically shows someone was with Him, undoubtedly His son. The angel in the wilderness whose voice the Israelites were strictly to obey because Jehovah's name was within him may therefore have been God's son, the Word.
2007-04-26 09:44:27
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answer #3
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answered by debbie2243 7
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God sent Jesus to teach about Him and spread His Word. He also sent Him to die so that others may live life eternally through Jesus blood. If you are teaching anything besides this than you are wrong.
God Bless You
2007-04-26 07:58:47
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answer #4
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answered by BamBam 3
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If you read the verse before, the Jewish leaders were mocking Jesus, insisting that his ideas had to have been made up by him and had no authority, because he had never studied under any of them, or had a formal training. ("How knows this man letters, having never learned?")
Jesus reply was that they were no just idea he had made up. They came from the one who set him. In the next verse he states that his doctrines are from God (meaning God sent him).
2007-04-26 08:03:29
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answer #5
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answered by dewcoons 7
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That is one of the many verses in the New Testament that helps explain the true relationship between Jesus and the Father. It is not one of equality.
One sends; the other is sent.
One gives; the other receives.
One is Unbegotten; the other is only-begotten.
One calls the other "My Son," whereas that one calls the other "My Father" and "My God."
Interesting, indeed.
2007-04-26 08:00:34
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answer #6
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answered by בַר אֱנָשׁ (bar_enosh) 6
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This is a good scripture to show that the Trinity doctrine is not correct and is not a Biblical teaching. Jesus was speaking of his father Jehovah God. He was teaching the Bible and in 2 Timothy is shows that the scriptures are inspired of God.
(2 Timothy 3:16-17) . . .All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.
(2 Timothy 4:1-2) . . .I solemnly charge you before God and Christ Jesus, who is destined to judge the living and the dead, and by his manifestation and his kingdom, 2 preach the word, be at it urgently in favorable season, in troublesome season, reprove, reprimand, exhort, with all long-suffering and [art of] teaching. . .
I like this scripture to, it shows a difference between God and Jesus.
2007-04-26 08:05:58
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answer #7
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answered by purplemrskitty 2
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Jesus was refering to his Father - Jehovah God.
This is one of the scriptures with show that Jesus and God are not the same or are not equal.
Jesus was sent to do the will of his father, and he did so willingly. Also, Jesus prayed to his father on several occassions - not to himself.
*Agape* - Much love Brother!
2007-04-26 07:57:10
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answer #8
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answered by ♥LadyC♥ 6
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Jesus Christ was talking about his Father Jehovah. Jesus cannot do anything without his Father in the heavens. www.watchtower.org
2007-04-26 08:59:29
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answer #9
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answered by lover of Jehovah and Jesus 7
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God the father sent Him.
John 6:39 KJV: And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
2007-04-26 07:58:06
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answer #10
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answered by Mr. E 7
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