was it ok to be gay in the eyes of god? seems to me he would have told adam first. he obviously didn't have a big enough problem with it as to let it slide (no pun intended) for so long (really, no pun intended)...
2007-04-25 19:14:59 · 6 answers · asked by just curious (A.A.A.A.) 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
yeah, but he never told adam that. in fact, how long was it before he even made it known it was a sin... it certainly wasn't anywhere in the book of genesis.
2007-04-25 19:21:18 · update #1
james, there were plenty of men for at least a thousand years before god even made mention of homosexuals...
2007-04-25 19:24:29 · update #2
i'm referring to all the generations after adam and eve that went without god's law. just look at the lineage of men past adam. there's at least 1000 years after adam that no mention of homosexuality or incest is even made.
2007-04-26 02:46:07 · update #3
If you trusted God, then you had peace with Him. Homosexual or not. Some say David and Johnathan has 'relations' and can see where they might be right. But that didn't stop David from being close to God, and I am jealous of David.
People really need to understand this. Perhaps they'll get off the 'is this a sin' thing. Trust God through Jesus Christ and you will have peace with God.
2007-04-25 19:29:07 · answer #1 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dah, there was a man and a woman--can you see why there would be no need to warn Adam about homosexuals? 2 people--male/female-no other humans--made for each other--what about that is difficult for you?
ADAM AND EVE ATE FROM FRUIT OF THE TREE OF THE KNOWLEDGE OF GOOD AND EVIL. HOW COULD THE TWO OF THEM NOT KNOW ABOUT THIS EVIL?
please show me the verse that says that. how do you know that this was done after "cavemen"?
The law covered this quite well. you have focused on adam/eve why did adam need that law?
2007-04-26 02:22:21 · answer #2 · answered by j.wisdom 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Have you ever read the story of Sodom and Gomorrah.
Genesis 18:16-33
Genesis 19:1-38
2007-04-26 02:24:33 · answer #3 · answered by tracy211968 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
before the old testament was canonized there was oral tradition in those days and so it would not be wrong to believe homosexuality was not allowed prior to the books of the bible being written and compiled in the canon of the bible.
most people back then couldn't read or write and so the main way of relaying truths etc was the oral tradition. people back then were very accustomed to this practice and it wasn't like our chinese whispers.........
2007-04-26 02:23:26 · answer #4 · answered by fenian1916 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible says for a man to lay with a man is an abomination to God so no it wasn't ok back then either.
2007-04-26 02:18:52 · answer #5 · answered by lisaandpathailey 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think he only started developing homophobia after a group of men attempted to sodomize two of his (male) angels.
2007-04-26 02:21:32 · answer #6 · answered by eldad9 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋