Is it true that any Bible translation that uses the word "homosexual" is inauthentic?

Question

Sorry "Ask Mr Religion" you are off topic with your anti-homosexual sermon.

Answer 1

This is not correct.

Sin is “any want of conformity unto or transgression of the law of God” (1Jo_3:4; Rom_4:15), in the inward state and habit of the soul, as well as in the outward conduct of the life, whether by omission or commission (Rom_6:12-17; Rom_7:5-24). Sin is not a mere violation of the law of our constitution, nor of the system of things, but an offense against a personal lawgiver and moral governor who vindicates his law with penalties.

Since God, speaking through the inspired prophets authoring the books of the bible, declared homosexuality a sin, then it is a sin.
See: Leviticus 18:22; Leviticus 20:13; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9,10; 1 Timothy 1:10.

Thus, homosexuality is just one of a litany of the decay of the perfect moral state found in original creation.

As all sinners, homosexuals can be true Christians. As far as God views sin, homosexuality is no greater or lesser than other sins. All sin is objectionable to God. Since homosexuality is often practiced openly ("in your face"), the reaction by some who have wandered off the “love thy neighbor” reservation is over the top. It may also be the case that anyone that seems to revel in their sin seems defiant or disingenuous, if they are a self-professed Christian. I believe that the true Christian homosexual struggles daily with their sinful nature.

Some resources regarding homosexuality and the bible to help you understand the issue or the reaction of others:

Myths About Homosexuality:
http://www.leaderu.com/orgs/probe/docs/homomyth.html

Theology and Homosexuality:
http://www.leaderu.com/orgs/probe/docs/homotheo.html

Happiness to Christians is more than the needs of the flesh. Homosexuals must continue to pray for strength to resist their urges and strive to be obedient to the scriptures.

Answer 2

There is no such thing as an authentic translation, or an inauthentic translation. The question is akin to asking, "Which is the correct form of English: British English or American English?"

The translator has to make a strategic decision, which is a product of the time in history they live, their own personal beliefs, and consideration for the specific audience they are writing the translation for.

For example, based on historical research, many modern biblical scholars say that "sodomite" means "someone who refuses to grant hospitality to a stranger." Fifty years from now, we will probably be translating the word in another completely different way.

Also, the translator's best judgment is often "overruled" by the politically powerful figures of the moment. Remember the golden rule: he who has the gold makes the rules.

Translation is not a science. It is a creative process, ever changing, and interpretation is essentially a personal experience.

Answer 3

It's true that homosexual is not accurate in the translation of certain words in the Bible. Sodomy has changed in meaning than that of the King James era, the King James who practiced sodomy regularly.

And then there is the word 'effeminate', which at least on one case was actually talking about a catamite, which is a boy or youth who is in a sexual relationship with a man. But then, that makes it close enough to homosexuality, wouldn't it?

The truth over all this anyway is that we are sinners, homosexual or not, and we need to make peace with the God who provided it through His Son Jesus Christ. That's the main thrust of Christianity, and King James apparently knew it better than those Christians we have today that think he was straight!

Boy, I am practically alone in this!

Answer 4

Don't know.

I know that "dogs" is apparently supposed to refer to male cult prostitutes.

Here's Romans 1:27 though.
In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error.

I assume that the fact that there are so many words in the English means that there were a few in Greek to describe the thought rather than use ambiguous terminology. The fact is that gays don't really know how to talk very well. Terminology was probably an issue for them in the first century as well. Paul made it nice and simple. katergazomai aschemosune means "performing unseemly things (perhaps even with a woman's genitals) - this describes the male homosexuals.

Answer 5

Well, the word "homosexual" is a word that was not invented until the 1800's and various Biblical interpretations of other texts have simply been twisted to mean homosexuality and then that word was added since Biblical scholars who were the ones that were twisting the meanings of other texts interpreted the Bible to have a specific meaning that implies that homosexuality translates as lust without giving any consideration to human emotion or physiology.

Answer 6

Forget about homosexuality. If you lied one time in your life you are a liar. If you stole even a penny in your life one time you are a theif. If you lusted after someone in your mind the Bible says you are a fornicator or adulterer in your heart, If you dishonored your parents by not showing respect to one or the other or both just one time you have broken that commandment, If you cursed in God's name or Jesus' Name one time you are guilty of taking the Lord's name in vain.

The Bible says that if you have broken one point in the law you are guilty of breaking the whole law. That is enough to send every human being on earth to Hell.

That is why we all need Christ's sacrifice for our sins! So get off this homosexual thing and get real with God. You are a sinner if you have broken any one of the Ten Commandments
and without hope of eternal life until you repent and turn to Christ for salvation.

God isn't playing this game with you. Repent or perish.

Answer 7

Yes, nowhere in the bible is there any word which ever meant "homosexual" as we know it.

The words used that modern people have translated to "homosexual" are "arsenokoites" and "malakos"

One is of unknown meaning and the other means an effeminate man. In ancient Greek times it was not proper for a man to be effeminate, and homosexuality, being widely practised, was not considered effeminate.

It's thought that malakos may have been used to refer to the exploitation of young boy prostitutes.

Answer 8

That's correct... that word didn't exist at the time that the bible was supposedly written.

There are two Hebrew words which are often associated with homosexual passages and which are mistranslated in many English versions of the Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament):

-- qadesh means a male prostitute who engaged in ritual sex in a Pagan temple . This was a common profession both in ancient Israel and in the surrounding countries. it is often mistranslated simply as "sodomite" or "homosexual." (e.g. the King James Version of the Bible, Deuteronomy 23:17). The companion word quedeshaw means female temple prostitute. It is frequently mistranslated simply as "whore" or "prostitute." A qadesh and quedeshaw were not simply prostitutes. They had a specific role to play in the temple. They represented a God and Goddess, and engaged in sexual intercourse in that capacity with members of the temple.

-- to'ebah means a condemned, foreign, Pagan, religious, cult practice, but often simply translated as "abomination." Eating food which contains both meat and dairy products is "to'ebah" A Jew eating with an Egyptian was "to'ebah." A Jew wearing a polyester-cotton garment would be "to'ebah."

Answer 9

Take into account the fact that they did not have the scientific and medical knowledge back then that we have today, and the authenticity becomes even more questionable. Any signifigant study of the facts will tell you it is determined by a persons' composite of genes and hormones AT BIRTH! Those who believe these ancient texts to be absolute truth, rail vehemently against this fact because it shatters their frail, pathetic lie that we are all disgraced sinners.

Answer 10

This is absolutley and one hundred percent correct.

The original phrasing from the bible is 'men who lay with men'. This is the only reference used to discribe this anywhere in the bible.

I have never come across a version where it has been included, but my advice is, if you have one through it out. You never know what else could have been changed as well.

Hope this helps.