Am I a god fearing, law abiding citizen if I follow Jesus' command to follow the Old Testement laws?

Question

Jesus strongly approves of the law and the prophets. He hasn’t the slightest objection to the cruelties of the Old Testament. "Do not think that I have come to abolish the law or the prophets. I have come not to abolish but to fulfill. Amen, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest part or the smallest part of a letter will pass from the law, until all things have taken place." (Matthew 5:17 NAB)

So, accordingly, Lev. 25:44 states that I may indeed possess slaves, both male and female, provided they are purchased from neighboring nations.

Is this okay? Or would it be better if I stuck to my own ungodly values of not taking or owning slaves?

Saw 18, changes nothing... what else you got?

Jesus has fulfilled the law, yes, but all has not been accomplished. Have you seen Jesus lately? Last I heard, we were still awaiting his second coming, obviously, all has not been accomplished.

I think you are all suffering from poor vision, he clearly says that he has NOT abolished the law, but fulfills it. That means that he ENFORCES it, not abolishes it. And if he only meant the ten commandments, then why does he criticize the Pharisees for not killing disobedient children according to the law: “He that curseth father or mother, let him die the death.” (Matthew 15:4-7)

Regarding Ephesians, Jesus did not say that, Paul said that. Paul is not Jesus. Nor is Paul God. With that being said, Jesus said until all is accomplished, which includes his return to the earth on a cloud of power and glory, not a letter, not a stroke of the law would change. Who are you going to listen to, Paul, or Jesus?

Also, if the law and 10 commandments were done away, why are christians so upset about homosexuality and atheism? Aparently, the law about homosexuality would be fulfilled too, since it was also an OT law. Why can't people worship whoever they want to, commandment number 1 no longer applies, right?

We can go at this all day, and I will have scripture to back up what ever I claim in counter to whatever scripture you claim.

Bruce Leroy, I loved your last film, but as for the commandment to honor your mother and your father, no where in that commandment does it say to kill disobediant children. It only says to honor your mother and father. The law saying that disobediant children should be put to death comes later on in Leviticus.

One last thing, I said own slaves, I never said in what context. You christians are doing what you always do, put words in people's mouths and assume everyone is as bad as you. I know the difference between slavery and indentured servitude, and the bible does have specific examples of each (i.e. the phrases 'man-servant' and 'woman-servant'). I also know how slavery was practiced in Africa, Rome, Greece, Israel, Palestine, well, the whole damn Meditteranean. I think you all need to check for yourselves how slavery was practiced, and then ASK me for clarification on what version I'm refering.

Answer 1

The hebrew practice of slavery was far less barbaric than the "age of exploration" slavery, by the way. So if you were to research and find out exactly what Hebrews did with their "slaves" then sure go ahead

Answer 2

Quote: "I think you are all suffering from poor vision, he clearly says that he has NOT abolished the law, but fulfills it. That means that he ENFORCES it, not abolishes it. And if he only meant the ten commandments, then why does he criticize the Pharisees for not killing disobedient children according to the law: “He that curseth father or mother, let him die the death.” (Matthew 15:4-7)"

Your example of Jesus criticizing the Pharisees is an example of one of the Ten Commandments, which is to honor thy Father and thy Mother. So you have not proven that Jesus definition of what the law is encompasses more than the ten commandments, but instead have confirmed it. There are over 600 commandments in the OT that were given to the Jews to follow, but of those ONLY 10 OF THE COMMANDMENTS were set up as law for ALL to follow. As has been stated on more than one occasion on YA the commandments in the OT were given to God's chosen people, the JEWS, as a way of handling all aspects of their life to set them apart from others. When Jesus said He fulfilled the law, He meant because we CANNOT keep the law on our own we must turn to Him for our salvation. As you read the NT you will see that the only commandments Jesus speaks of are the ten commandments that represent law. These are what we will be held accountable for at the day of our death.

The questioner is right about one thing that apparently a lot of you Christians either can't grasp or can't explain, which is that Jesus DID NOT abolish the law but as was stated He fulfilled the Law. He became the sacrifice/atonement for our sins. This applies to people who have been "born-again" so that they may not be held as slaves to the law. For those who DO NOT accept Jesus as their savior, they WILL be held accountable to the Law and how they disobeyed/broke the law through sin. What is sin? Sin is transgression of the LAW.

To answer your question Lev. 25:44 is not part of the ten commandments, which means it is NOT law and thereby IRRELEVENT to Jesus command to follow the law. Matthew 5:17 has NOTHING to do with Lev. 25:44.

Thank you come again.

Answer 3

Apparently, that statement about abolishing and fulfilling was what rabbis used to say to their disciples. If they thought their disciple had understood and applied a scripture well they would say "you have fulfilled the law", and if they thought they'd completely missed the point they'd say "you have abolished the law". So what Jesus was saying there was, essentially, "I understand the meaning of the law and the proper application better than you do, so trust me when I tell you how to follow it." And the two most important laws, on his interpretation, were 'Love God' and 'Love people'.

Scripture is abstract. It has to be interpreted. And all interpretations these days would say that the bit about slaves is just a throwback of the culture of the time. In fact, the end of slavery had a lot to do with the spread of Christian values.

Answer 4

Jesus did not approve of slavery in the sense that you are talking about. Indentured servants are not the same as slaves that are property.

Secondly, Jesus, when asked what the most important Law was, summed up the entire OT law in two phrases. Matt 22:35-37
You should love the Lord your God with all you heart , soul, mind, and strength, and the second is this, you should love your neighbor as yourself.
The Law AND the Prophets hang on THESE two commandments.
What Jesus was saying to the Pharisees is that the LAW was not for legalists. It was to show that they NEEDED grace.
His summation of the Law in two grace filled sentences should answer your question.
Is what you have in mind honoring to God and your neighbor? Would it be loving them as much as you love yourself (Jesus presumed that you love yourself much).

Answer 5

There were several kinds of laws in the Old Testament. Some of these laws were religious laws concerning the Tabernacle and the sacrificial system. They ceased when Jesus died on the cross. Others were civil laws that each country has to have. We also know that some of these were given because the people were hard-hearted (Jesus tells us so). These laws ceased to exist when the Jewish nation ceased to exist. Then we have the ten commandements that are for ever.
When it comes to the laws concerning slaves I think these laws were for old Israel, and becuase of circumstances. If well treated these "slaves" were much like employed people today.
An imperfect world sometimes makes it necessary with imperfect laws (because of people's heart).

Answer 6

See 18...

As usual, taking things out of context distorts the meaning. The very next verse after saying Jesus did not COME TO abolish the law PREDICTS the END of that law.

Jesus said he didn’t come to destroy the law, but to fulfill it. (Matt 5:17) The effect was the same. Once fulfilled it was no longer in effect. The very next verse, Matthew 5:18, looks forward to the time when the law would be set aside. "...Not even the smallest stroke of a pen will disappear from the Law UNTIL EVERYTHING IS COMPLETED." This “UNTIL” clause reinforces the temporary nature of the law. It ONLY makes sense when we understand that it was intended from the beginning to be set aside.
Matthew 5:18 "What I’m about to tell you is true. Heaven and earth will disappear before the smallest letter disappears from the Law. Not even the smallest stroke of a pen will disappear from the Law UNTIL EVERYTHING IS COMPLETED."

On the cross, Jesus' last recorded saying, "It is finished," is an important milestone. Because of Jesus life, Satan had been defeated. The law was finished and would no longer stand between God and mankind. ALL OF THE THINGS WHICH WERE ESSENTIAL FOR THE LAW TO BE SET ASIDE HAD BEEN COMPLETED. EVERY PROPHECY IT CONTAINED OF JESUS WAS FULFILLED.

Paul wrote BY DIVINE INSPIRATION. Peter CONFIRMED THIS:

2Peter 3:15 Remember that while our Lord is waiting patiently to return, people are being saved.
Our dear brother Paul also wrote to you about that. God made him wise to write as he did.

Jesus had ALL AUTHORITY (Matthew 28:18) and gave authority to the apostles, which included Paul. Denying Paul's authority is the same as denying God's authority, since he was tho one who gave it to him, as Peter explicitly states.

Ephesians 2:15 Through his body on the cross, Christ put an END to the LAW WITH ALL ITS COMMANDS AND RULES. He wanted to create one new group of people out of the two. He wanted to make peace between them.

Colossians 2:14 He wiped out the written Law with its rules. The Law was against us. It opposed us. He took it away and nailed it to the cross.

Galatians 2:16 ...No one can be made right with God by obeying the law.

Galatians 2:21 ...What if a person could become right with God by obeying the law? Then Christ died for nothing!

Romans 3:20 So it can’t be said that anyone will be made right with God by obeying the law. Not at all! The law makes us more aware of our sin. 21 But now God has shown us how to become right with him. The Law and the Prophets give witness to this. It has nothing to do with obeying the law.

Galatians 5:4 Some of you are trying to be made right with God by obeying the law. You have been separated from Christ. You have fallen away from God’s grace... The ONLY verse that talks about falling from grace, and they did it by trying to follow the law!



The 10 commandments along with the rest of the law ("commands and rules" from Ephesians 2:15) were "set aside" when they were fulfilled or completed at Jesus' resurrection. We are no longer bound by that law.

Answer 7

Guess where he fulfilled them? On the cross.He took all the 613 laws and statutes of the Mosaic system and nailed them to the cross.As far as slave s go ,go ask an Arab slave trader in Sudan.
Read Collosians 1 & 2 . Probably all of Galatians too.

Answer 8

The law Jesus was talking about were the moral and spiritual laws. The ten commandments which he placed into two catagories Love God and Love thy neighbor which covers all in respect to God and man.

Answer 9

No,

Those laws have been fulfilled already with the blood of Christ. There is a new commandment, "To Love each other as I have Loved you" Slavery is not Love in modern society.

Good Luck and God Bless...

Peace!

Answer 10

We are not under the dispensation of law any more since Jesus died on the cross and became the sacrifice for our sins.

So, if you have a "slave" you are not "law-abiding" since it is against the law. And any other thing you take literally from the old testament as o.k. in today's world is wrong. (As far as their "laws" go and our laws.)

You need to talk to a licensed minister who knows his Bible!