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2007-04-25 05:55:17 · 3 answers · asked by s0u1 reaver 5 in Science & Mathematics Engineering

Can't u explain a bit elaborately? Thanks

2007-04-25 06:22:59 · update #1

3 answers

I believe that what the guy above me is trying to say is that in a MOSFET, the gate (G) is electrically isolated from the source (S) by having an oxide layer (insulator) located between the gate and source regions, while in a JFET, there is some leakage current between the gate (G) and the source (S) -- since the gate and source regions on the IC are physically touching.

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...The JFET gate presents a small current load which is the reverse leakage of the gate-to-channel junction. The MOSFET has the advantage of extremely low gate current (measured in picoamperes) because of the insulating oxide between the gate and channel. However, compared to the base current of a bipolar junction transistor the JFET gate current is much lower, and the JFET has higher transconductance than the MOSFET. Therefore JFETs are used to advantage in some low-noise, high input-impedance op-amps and sometimes used in switching applications....

2007-04-25 07:02:05 · answer #1 · answered by Randy G 7 · 1 0

JFET has low GS resistance. (GS has junction)
MOSFET high GS resistance (GS no junction)

2007-04-25 06:02:01 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The Vgs in JFETs can not be anything above OV, it is always negative( for N- Channel) while in MOSFETs the Vgs ca can be above O Volts.

2016-04-01 06:46:04 · answer #3 · answered by Diane 4 · 0 0

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