The Old Testament and the New Testament do not seem to have something in common. i.e. Moses (or Osarshiff), says "an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth." Jesus says "if someone hits you on the left cheek turn to him your right cheek too." There are many other examples (e.g. adultery, divorce et.a.), that Jesus does clearly disagree with Yahweh. So, what Jesus calls as Father is not Yahweh of the Old Testament, but someone else, which is the Real Father.
2007-04-24 21:21:38
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answer #1
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answered by billaynes 1
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Jesus said nothing of the sort.
Although Jesus was in existence alongside his Father, Jehovah God, he was unknown to the early Jews of the Old Testament. [Proverbs 8; 22-31]
Those Jews dealt directly with Jehovah God.[ Exodus 3;15, 6;3] As for the beating of slaves, corporal punishment was acceptable, but the law covered every possible outcome. It does not state that to actually kill a slave was acceptable. If that happened, it involved punishment.
And these Old Testament laws were pertinent to the Jews.
At that time, there were NO christians.
Not until Jesus' time, and people followed the teachings of Jesus the Messiah, the Christ. Those were Christians.
2007-04-24 21:03:30
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answer #2
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answered by pugjw9896 7
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While I don't quite see the actual question here, I felt you still deserved an actual response as to the nature of the scripture you're inquiring about. I believe the translation you have is a "modern English" translation and, while I don't mean to state it's wrongness, it is contrary to the long accepted meaning of this passage. This chapter of Exodus is wholly about slavery rights and crimes against persons. As such the most correct meaning of the original text (as far as I can see) is: That a man may only punish his slaves fairly and they are still to recognized as people. The passage you cited is about vengeance of the family. The "if he shall continue on a day or two" refers to the owner not the slave. It was accepted that a slave would be avenged by family hence, if the owner continued on a day or two then he had received no punishment but he was still out the money spent on the slave. This SAME chapter states that even if a man goes unpunished on earth he is still to be punished by Deity. Just three verses later it states:
24Eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot,
25Burning for burning, wound for wound, stripe for stripe.
That states outright that any intentional infliction of pain would be delivered back on the deliverer whether on earth or heaven. Verse 22 and 23 may also be of interest if you have ideas about the treatment of women beyond not causing them intentional pain. Even if unintentional the loss of a child even if the woman survives would mean punishment on the offender. The woman's husband chose the punishment for the man and if judges felt it was not severe enough the offender (or both) would be put to death.
Now for the concept of Jesus' commandments. The two books are divided by more than chronology. One is considered to be the stick (book of laws) of Joseph and the other the stick of Judah. As such the new testament is actually a replacement of the old. The people of the earth were given a new law which was intended to replace the original 10 (this is all part of Moses smashing the original tablets although pre-ordained). It was handed down by Jesus in his actions and recorded by John in his words as:
John 13:34-35
A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love one another; as I have loved you, that ye also love one another. By this shall all men know that ye are my disciples, if ye have love one to another.
See how that neatly replaces the old commandments (with regards to interactions with our fellow men)? It's also one of the only uses of the word "commandment" in the NT. It is important to remember that in the religious concepts we're talking about there is a "guiding" or "watchful" Deity so it would make sense that he would guide his people through laws that built a culture for which new laws would be accepted and mankind could be led back to him. But I guess it's all a matter of faith.
One further thing: many "Christian" religions don't believe in the trinity as one person. See Mormons, born again, and most American based sects. Christian simply expresses a belief in Christ as a divine being or savior not necessarily the same person as God. That is mostly a Catholic creation. Of course if you believe in the bible then Catholicism is the only Church of Christ as handed down to Peter. But that's a completely different question. Hope I've been of some help on this complex quandary.
And check out www.biblegateway.com as they have a translator that allows you to view any verse, chapter, or passage in almost every translation available. It's pretty rockin'.
2007-04-24 20:31:37
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answer #3
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answered by WhipDole 2
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He actually said MALE and FEMALE. I can take a couple of beatings but would hate to be beaten until i'm out of the lights. Well i kinda think the bible is screwed. Here the priest is ranting everyone should be treated as an equal but then the bible says you can treat slaves badly. So who should we trust? God's Book or the word's of the priest? if i had my way, i would rather that everyone was treated equal. yes i can't deny it i know that. i'm not christian but i'm just saying why is the bible a bit screwed?
2007-04-24 20:01:35
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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We don't know what Jesus said. No one was there with a pen and paper when he spoke. Christianity doesn't have a perfect record when it comes to telling the truth. Galileo can vouch for that. Besides, some religions claim that God told them that it's okay to beat women with a stick.
2007-04-24 20:01:43
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answer #5
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answered by liberty11235 6
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All true, and as one Christian I don't deny anything. The Law that was given to Moses on Mount Sinai was given by God, and by God I refer to the Trinity that is the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. That's why it was imperitive that Jesus come and make Himself a sacrifice for sin, so that the Law could be fulfilled in Him and the punishment for breaking the Law could be done away with. The Law was given so the we could know what God's definition of Holiness was and what the penalties for failing to be holy are. Without Jesus' life and sacrifice, all we could hope for is that the sheep would be plentiful enough for us all to go on making endless sacrifices for our sins. But Jesus was the perfect, eternal Lamb, and He is the only perfect, eternal sacrifice for sin. Because of His life, we can be redeemed from the Fall. The Law still serves to show us God's requirements and His punishments, but Jesus has paid the price for us that we could never pay ourselves.
2007-04-24 20:01:50
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answer #6
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answered by Steve 5
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You quote Exodus and do not quote where you got this ridiculous notion that Jesus "said" you can beat a woman with a rod. Not even Paul or Peter, who were anti-feminists said such a thing.
In Exodus, there were no Christians and Jesus had yet to be born. It is about Moses leading the Jewish slaves from Eqypt to the promised land.
The Skeptical Christian
Grace and Peace
Peg
2007-04-24 19:59:18
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answer #7
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answered by Dust in the Wind 7
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Jesus was not part of God at this time. The trinity was something that developed. Jesus was Gods son as an extension of God on earth and when he died the holly spirit was the extension in the hearts of Christians.
Also when Jesus dies we entered into a new covenant which made the old laws such as sacrifice unneeded.
2007-04-24 19:54:57
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answer #8
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answered by J~Lowe 2
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If you get technical, the verse also says it's alright to own another human being. Thank you for making a point for me. (my point-that the bible is a bunch of bohunk)
2007-04-24 20:04:55
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answer #9
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answered by sweetgurl13069 6
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The Bible is chock-a-block with savage barbarism. You could multiply examples like this one endlessly. I've never yet seen a "Christian" bothered by any of them.
2007-04-24 19:49:43
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answer #10
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answered by jonjon418 6
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