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In Isaiah 45:7 says this about himself - "I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things."

I have just been assured by several devoute Christians that what this verse really means is that God "allows" evil to exist. It does not mean that he "creates" evil.

However, the Hebrew word (bara) used in Isaiah 45:7 is the same word found in Genesis 1:1 (bara barashit elohim) where God "creates" the Heavens and the Earth.

Now what this means for apologists, of course, is that God didn't really create anything in Genesis. He simply "allowed" it to happen. Slam dunk for the Big Bang Theory and Evolution.

2007-04-24 13:40:27 · 43 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

mary e, I'm not sure where you're coming from? Did you not notice that I referenced Genesis 1:1. Is there another place to start reading the Bible from the beginning that I might have missed?

2007-04-24 14:06:36 · update #1

43 answers

LOL. Good for you. I know that you are playing with words but it does show them that they can't have it both ways. If there is a god, he is all things and yes he did creat evil, so deal with it.

2007-04-24 13:45:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Maybe I'm missing something. God does create evil. He creates everything. To claim that there is stuff he didn't make is to say he is not God. By pointing out this verse, you reinforce the notion of an omnipotent being. What's the problem? By the way, the verse uses 3 different terms for creation (bara, asah and yatzar)...

2007-04-24 13:50:45 · answer #2 · answered by rosends 7 · 1 0

The scriptures clearly teach that God cannot be the author of evil. James 1:13 states "Let no one say when he is tempted. 'I am being tempted by God'; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone." And further "Every good thing bestowed and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation, or shifting shadow." (emphasis added) We know that God is not a God of confusion (1 Cor 14:33). Psalm 18:30 tells us "As for God, His way is blameless" and "Thou art not a God who takes pleasure in wickedness; no evil dwells with Thee (Psalm 5:4). Also, "The Lord is righteous in all His ways, and kind in all His deeds." (Psalm 145:17).we know that all of these Scriptures cannot be wrong on the nature of God, so we must re-examine your exegesis of the Hebrew wordba ra'. Hebrew is an ancient language that was much more limited in scope than say Greek. Frequently, the same words were used in several contexts to mean different things. Why, even in English the word blue could mean a color or someone feeling depressed.
The word ra' is used throughout the Old Testament with several meanings. It is used many times to mean something morally evil or hurtful (Job 35:12, 1 Sam 30:22, etc.) but it is also used to mean an unpleasant experience (Gen 47:9 and Prov. 15:10). It is used to describe fierce beasts (Lev. 26:6), and even spoiled or inferior fruit (Jer 24:3). Certainly, the figs that Jeremiah was looking at were not evil in the sense of morally reprobate! In Isaiah 45, the word evil is used in a contrast to the peace and well-being discussed before it. I quote John Haley:
Evil means natural, and not moral evil, or sin. Herderson says "affliction, adversity"; Calvin, "afflictions, wars, and other adverse occurrences."
…Whichever interpretation may be adopted, none of the above texts, nor any others when properly explained, sanction the revolting proposition that God is the author of sin."
God, in Hebrew thought, is considered the final authority over everything. If wars or famine happen, then God has allowed that to occur, and therefore controls evil. He does not initiate any type of evil. When a man seeks to sin and commit adultery, that is his choice. He should not expect God to protect him, then from any disease or negative ramification of his choice. God's judgments and the loss of His protection are how he creates afflictions in the lives of men. Judgment is not morally wrong, though. Quite the opposite. Judgment is what we expect of a righteous God.

2007-04-24 13:55:28 · answer #3 · answered by K 5 · 1 1

LOL, good show.

Yes God does create evil, it says so in the bible, therefore it is true in its context however you define that context.

God forms the light and creates the darkness, a little physics knowledge makes this so easy to understand. Light has a duality... like God and Satan... darkness is invariably created out of shadows cast by form, and form is the illusion created by the collapse of light waves due to observation.

Oh and additionally all NIV readers, the literal translation is 'evil' not 'disaster'... somebody screwed with your Bible.

2007-04-24 14:13:55 · answer #4 · answered by Monita C 3 · 1 0

Your friends are correct in stating that God does not create "evil" in the sense that He doesn't create something that is evil in nature. But they are incorrect in their interpretation of what that verse means when it uses the word that has been translated into English as "evil".

Isaiah 45:7 I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil (rā‛āh): I the LORD do all these things.

rā‛āh - An adjective meaning bad, evil. The basic meaning of this word displays ten or more various shades of the meaning of evil according to its contextual usage.

In this context the evil is of punishment for sin, God's sore judgments, famine, pestilence, evil beasts, and the sword, or war, which latter may more especially be intended, as it is opposed to peace.

2007-04-24 13:53:16 · answer #5 · answered by Martin S 7 · 2 1

Giovanni, Great question!
I believe God created the heavens and the earth and that he also creates evil, not against the good or innocent people but against the house of evildoers. Isaiah 31:2

On the other hand, there is Satan and his demons who are bent on doing evil to the entire human race.

2007-04-24 14:07:21 · answer #6 · answered by forerunner7 4 · 0 0

You are (again, if I recall correctly) assuming that one word cannot have more than one meaning. To wit:

"Scholars have observed that 'evil' can be used with a purely secular meaning to denote physical injury (Jeremiah 39:12) or times of distress (Amos 6:3)- which is its significance in Isaiah 45:7 (see Harris, et al., 1980, 2:855)."
http://www.apologeticspress.org/articles/2172

"The Hebrew term ra' has a broad spectrum of meanings. It can mean 'wickedness,' 'mischief,' 'bad,' 'trouble,' 'hurt,' 'sore,' 'affliction,' 'ill,' 'adversity,' 'harm,' 'grievous,' and 'sad.' Thus, as with the interpretation of any word, it is the immediate context that dictates the exact nuance of the word to be translated into English."
http://www.rbc.org/bible_study/answers_to_tough_questions/answers/30871.aspx

2007-04-24 15:07:55 · answer #7 · answered by Deof Movestofca 7 · 0 0

Gen.1:1,2; All existed when Genesis begans, Gen.1:3-25; All is being prepared, light situated, ground and wather situated, plant life with times and seasons, animals from water, then domestic animals, then Man who will identify with the times and seasons day that is for plant life as Noah was in the ark 375 days.
Day seven continues and the time it is is given, which is the time of each day as they are all one as 7x 7000 is 49,000 in time for God.

AFTER MAN:
Gen.3:22; The man has become as one of us to know good from Evil.
Job 34:4-7; Angels see earth in preparation, angels know good from evil before man ever comes on the scene.
Just because there is evil, does not mean, evil has to rule, but in this world Gen.8:21; The imagination of Man's heart is evil from his youth.

So how will God and Christ get it out of man so that just can rule?

2007-04-24 13:50:30 · answer #8 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 1

Excellent "theory" but did you "research" WHEN and WHO wrote what you just READ? The scribes of the hebrews were NOT the givers of the SACRED WORDS of God in heaven, they just "plagerized" some of them from a much OLDER source. The faith of Egypt, known to many as "theban." Isaiah was a "prophet" of the hebrews born in/around the 8th century b.c. and you have to "wonder" where his words came from for there were NO RECORDS "written" prior to the Babylonian captivity. So "who" wrote the Jewish Tanakh if left up to the speculation that Ezra and his sons were the "originators" of all that is written after they were released from Babylon. Then all "that" was re"modified" by Jewish scholars at Alexandria Egypt in the 3rd century Don't despair though, for I am one who believes in the Big Band and evolution BUT "with" intelligent design, as one, who is a disciple of Amen in Yezua, or what many call Theban christian. My belief is as the ancients. NOTHING created was in an INSTANT. Everything slowly "evolved" into what is. If you seek truth, don't look to religions to give it to you. Look with the eyes of FAITH to find it and you will..............especially in all the records left to us by the ancients of the Egyptian civilization........

2007-04-24 13:59:03 · answer #9 · answered by Theban 5 · 1 0

Do you stand on an atheistical view or do you stand on a
theistical view? Your insights are correct that, God did not
"create" everything because, the actual correct translation
is God "willed" those things into existence; thus, it can be
the Will of God that a certain thing is "created" as well as
"allowed".

"Nothing can come into existence without the Will of God",
this is actually a paraphrase from the Qur'aan. As one can
already realise that, the Torah and the Qur'aan actually
stated the same idea about God; however, people misread
and mistranslated the passages intentionally as well as
unintentionally.

2007-04-24 13:53:04 · answer #10 · answered by Ryougi Shiki 4 · 1 1

who's God be conscious conversing of in Isaiah 9: 6 For unto us a baby is born, unto us a son is given: and the government would be upon his shoulder: and his call would be called surprising, Counsellor, The robust God, The eternal Father, The Prince of Peace. This very scripture is interior the recent international Translation, JW s bible.

2016-10-30 05:28:15 · answer #11 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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