2007-04-24 08:20:46 · 9 answers · asked by Grateful 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
"Son of Man" means that Jesus was truly a human being. God called the prophet Ezekiel "son of man" 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel a human being. A son of a man is a man. Jesus was fully God (John 1:1), but He was also a human being (John 1:14). 1 John 4:2 tells us, "This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God." Yes, Jesus was the Son of God – He was in His essence God. Yes, Jesus was also the Son of Man – He was in His essence a human being. In summary, the phrase "Son of Man" indicates that Jesus is the Messiah and that He is truly a human being.
2007-04-24 14:08:10 · answer #1 · answered by Freedom 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is a title. There are several titles for Messiah. The Son of God means He would be the only begotten of the Father. The Son of Man means that Messiah would be an offspring from the tribe of Judah, the Son of David (another title), and come from the Seed of the woman (yet another title).
In a digest, the Messiah would be God (Son of God) come in the flesh (Son of Man).
Revelation 1:13
In the midst of the seven lampstands One like the Son of Man, clothed with a garment down to the feet and girded about the chest with a golden band.
2007-04-24 15:24:31 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the Gospel accounts the expression is found nearly 80 times, applying in every case to Jesus Christ, being used by him to refer to himself. (Mt 8:20; 9:6; 10:23) The occurrences outside the Gospel accounts are at Acts 7:56; Hebrews 2:6; and Revelation 1:13; 14:14.
Jesus’ application of this expression to himself clearly showed that God’s Son was now indeed a human, having ‘become flesh’ (Joh 1:14), having ‘come to be out of a woman’ through his conception and birth to the Jewish virgin Mary. (Ga 4:4; Lu 1:34-36) Hence he had not simply materialized a human body as angels had previously done; he was not an incarnation but was actually a ‘son of mankind’ through his human mother.
2007-04-24 15:24:39 · answer #3 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
And again Schneb is right. But may I add one insignificant thing . to-whit. In the scriptures where it says "Son of man" you will notice that the " S " in Son of man is capitalized it is usually referring to Christ! If it is a small s then it is usually referring to humans or fallen angels. As in " sons of man".
2007-04-24 17:03:31 · answer #4 · answered by swindled 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hello.
Because "Son of Man" means "born from a human being". Because, Jesus was born from Mary, and she was a human.
Regards.
Tony
2007-04-24 15:31:12 · answer #5 · answered by Tony 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
being born of Mary He was the "son of man"
that refers to the flesh of the Christ and that He was in a body no different than ours except He had no sin
2007-04-24 15:24:31 · answer #6 · answered by Noble Angel 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
because he is the son of marry, and gods messenger.
god usually refers to humans as the son of adam , or as translated in different languages, son of man.
yes he is a human, a devine human sent by god to his people. no such thing as trinity
2007-04-24 15:25:42 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
son of man is another term used for or instead of prophet.
2007-04-24 15:27:05 · answer #8 · answered by God help us 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because he is always holding the legs of men as if he was their son.
2007-04-24 15:25:08 · answer #9 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋