KJV 1611 version, Matthew 8:18 says Jesus gave a commandment...?

Question

The commandment was for his people to cross to the other side of the sea!! If the Jews and such crossed the sea and came to the new world, then they would of not suffered their slaughter in ww2, and then they gather in the middle east against this commandment, and now the trouble in the mid-east, is caused because the Jews did not keep this commandment, therefore, now we have a very big problem on the dispute of the claim to the mid-east land, which could of been avoided, if they understood this commandment, is this a possible application of this scripture ?

Answer 1

Which sea, He didn't really clarify. Kinda fits in with all the other unclear proclamations

So if I am to follow your logic. Jesus told the Jews to cross over the sea, then punished them for not listening by allowing Hitler to annihilate 6 Million of them. Doesn't that make him kinda a Jerk?

Answer 2

First of all Jesus was in a place called Capernaum at Peter's House...(Maps show there was a large lake there)

Secondly He was talking to His disciples which included both Jew and others, (not the Nation of Israel)

Matthew 8:18 (NLT)
18 When Jesus noticed how large the crowd was growing, he instructed his disciples to cross to the other side of the lake.

All modern versions show lake.

It had nothing to do with crossing a sea or a new world or the nation of Israel.

Answer 3

You can read anything into any scripture. You need to support it with other qualifying scriptures that relate to the original intepretation. In this case, I think you are way off base. It was prophesized that Israel would again become a nation (1948) after the Gospel was preached to the whole world, Jerusalem would be returned as the capital (1973) and the Christians were grafted in (the last 2000 years). Then the stage would be set for the second coming. No warnings, just an unfolding of the plan.

Answer 4

You have misinterpreted the verse in question:

Mat 8:18 Now when Jesus saw a great crowd around him, he gave orders to go over to the other side. (ESV Translation)

As Jesus prepared to cross the Sea of Galilee from Capernaum to the east side, a self-confident scribe stepped forward pledging to follow Him “all the way.” The Lord's answer challenged him to count the cost—a life of self-denial. “Foxes have holes and birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has nowhere to lay His head.” In His public ministry, He had no home of His own; however, there were homes where He was a welcome guest and He ordinarily had a place to sleep. The true force of His words seems to be spiritual: this world could not provide Him with true, lasting rest. He had a work to do and could not rest till it was accomplished. The same is true of His followers; this world is not their resting place—or at least, it shouldn't be!

Answer 5

1st of all, He wasn't commanding the people, He didn't usually command the people. He was commanding his disciples.

2nd it was the sea of Galilee : that's where Capernaum is.

3rdly You seem to have gotten a rather far fetched doctrine from one kind of zaney interpretation of one verse.

Look at God's promises to Israel, Nearly every one of them is conditional. Since when do the Jews -any Jews- obey Jesus' commandments?

Even IF that's what He really meant -which it ISN'T, it's still a VERY, VERY big IF!

Even though your theory took place in the sea, I'm sorry but it just doesn't hold much water!

Read the book of Jerimiah! They were already in big trouble with God long before Jesus came on the scene. ---Sionarra

Answer 6

Um -- Matt 8:18 says nothing about crossing the sea and was not a Commandment. Jesus had just driven out some demons from a crowd of people, and then he told them to cross a lake with him. The story goes on from there.

Answer 7

Israel is the Jew's promised land. How do you know which "sea" He was talking about? Seems like a lavish explanation for something that you expounded on without taking into consideration exactly where Jesus meant.

Answer 8

The translators of the former testomony were Jewish students nicely commonly used with both the Hebrew and the Greek languages it truly is undemanding because the Septuagint version. It replaced into undemanding because the Alexandrian version to distinguish it from the Hebrew or Palestinian version. The Septuagint contains extra books than the Palestinian version and is about 3 hundred years older. The Palestinian version originated about round 106 A.D. and is not any longer a similar because the Hebrew texts that were the idea for the Septuagint translation. Many translations into Latin were made in the course of the early Catholic centuries. the most suitable undemanding Latin translation replaced into both the "previous African" or the "previous Italian" (Vetus Itala). Pope Damasus (Pope from 366 to 384) commissioned St. Jerome to make a clean and precise translation. it truly is undemanding because the Vulgate version. Vulgate potential instantly ahead or vulgar in Latin and it replaced into stated as so because Latin replaced into the instantly ahead tongue of the Western Roman Empire. The Douay-Rheims version replaced into translated from the Latin Vulgate into English. in the course of the Protestant "Deformation" in England many pretend translations were made, subsequently there replaced into large necessity of putting contained in the palms of Catholics a great and precise translation. The English Protestant translations is the version stated as the "King James," named after the King who commissioned it in 1604. It replaced into complete in 1611. it remains the most commonplace of the Protestant Bibles contained in the English speaking international. like each and each of the Protestant Bibles, it truly is incomplete and poorly translated. it truly is a "%. and decide" version. Such is the authentic lack of understand of the "Reformers" for the word of God!

Answer 9

Erroneous Interpretation !


The Holy Bible is like no other book, because no other book has God for its principal author.

Nevertheless the Bible is not the foundation of the Church, but the Church is the foundation of the Bible.

One cannot have God for his Father, who will not have the Church for his Mother, and likewise, one cannot have the Word of God for his faith who will not have the Church for his teacher. It is the infallible teaching authority of the Church, as promised by Christ, which alone preserves God's Word from erroneous interpretation.

Erroneous Interpretation !

Answer 10

Ask Mr is absolutely correct, you have misinterpreted.