No secular country (be it america, canada, australia, Uk, france, Germany,italy, japan etc etc) have separate laws for any religion, but India have all separate for Muslims why ?
2007-04-22 20:48:39 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
well, it's probably because of the fundamentalists of muslim. There are not many, quite a few i have heard of- like probably 1 or 2. but, these people interfere with the law and order when it concerns with their religion. Commoners, who follow Islam are really nice people, i have a few frnds and they don't really seem like they wanna go to war. but after all, it is nearly always the politicians who brew up something. like my social science teacher once told us that this woman had split up from her husband and he had not given her the divorce. she wanted child support and a divorce settlement. There was an uproar in the country, and she had 2 withdraw the case. There was an uproar by the fundamentalists since they demanded that the judiciary shouldn't be involved in the personal matters of the couple. I'm sure the court felt quite helpless. and all those countries you mentioned-muslim population isn't as high there as it is in india. in india, it follows right after hindu (in population figures.) and there are more muslims in india (by census), than there are in pakistan. did u knw that? wel, i just read it 2.
2007-04-22 21:11:34 · answer #1 · answered by Volvogirl 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes India is a secular country. It does not pertain to any particular religion. However, people in India are allowed to freely practice thier religious beliefs. That's the freedeom offered. Therea re separate laws in India for Muslims as well as few separate laws for Hindus, and off course for sikhs too.
Few secular countries enforce their citizens to follow a common code instead of following their religious beliefs. In fact, in these cases secularism is not strictly followed as the common codes still pertain to some religion followed by majority of the citizens in the country. India however has implied the correct definition of secularism and democracy.
All the best...
:-)
2007-04-23 08:53:39 · answer #2 · answered by plato's ghost 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The very fact that Muslims have their own personal laws shows that India is a secular country. If it were not, as in Pakistan, we would be following only one law, irrespective of the various religions.
2007-04-23 19:37:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
What do you mean by the word SECULAR ? If that word is properly understood major problem is solved.
What I understand from the word Secular is every one in a country is free to follow the religion or belief in which he has faith. No other person how big or great he may be can not interfere with the beliefs of others.
When a fellow follows his own religion, if it has certain rules and regulation what is wrong? Secularism does not mean free for all or lawless state.
2007-04-23 18:46:35 · answer #4 · answered by ravipati 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question. Well first of all, India has 'Hindu' laws which is not the same as saying it has Indian or American laws. So it is not just a separate law for Muslims, but Hindu's too.
Religions like Jainism, Buddhism and Sikhism come under the Hindu law. These minorities are asserting that they are not Hindu's and want to be recognized as a part of distinct religions.
2007-04-24 07:39:34 · answer #5 · answered by R 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
That is because in India muslims are supposed to be a minority. That is why. Not only for muslims there are special laws for Hindus regarding the marriages and certain other things.
2007-04-22 22:17:51 · answer #6 · answered by sarath krishh 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Indian laws are not as strict as other countries , in fact India has Secular country in real sense, which means it honours all the religion but not patronise any one.
2007-04-23 19:19:47 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
This is all gifted by Britishers on the ocassion of Happy Bithday of India and Pakistan in 1947 and after that our Most Intelligent Political Leaders have flourished it for the sake of their voating bank balance.
2007-04-23 01:27:29 · answer #8 · answered by Golden Eye 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It would be height of folly to say that "diversity of religions in India" leads to "religious conflicts"! It is 'the wrong concept of religious consciousness', as interpreted by bigotted religious leaders and fanatic poliicians, has been the real villain! Look how' the inspired religious hatred' blinds one's vision! Feroze Gandhi, husband of Indra Gandhi, was a Parsee ,!Yet he has been held out as a MUslim!! He was the sidelined person who made history by exposing the "Mundhra deal" in Nehru's days and caused the dishonourable exit of a veteran congress leader and then Finance Minister!
2016-05-17 03:59:08 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not only for Muslims but different civil laws for all different religions such as Christians, Parsis & Jews. Let me refer to my question regarding implementation of common civil code as provided by the Constitution of India. Hope this question & the answers I got will be a source of information for you how the people of India feels about a common civil law for all Indians irrespective of their religion. Please Check this link>>>> http://in.answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=Anb50YpqzCFH_dynHQOvBTOQHQx.?qid=20070411000725AAT1nUu
2007-04-22 21:16:31 · answer #10 · answered by vijay m Indian Lawyer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋