2007-04-22 09:47:41 · 6 answers · asked by 2kool4u 5 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Astronomy & Space
Because there is way more space between stars than stars.
2007-04-22 09:51:21 · answer #1 · answered by Vincent G 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question. The reason is that those stars are A. Too far away to provide us with the adequate amount of light that would simulate our "day" and B. the stars that are surrounding us are no where near the size of our sun.
2007-04-22 16:54:47 · answer #2 · answered by Dimitrius J 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The sun is a star that is close enough to us to be able to light up our side of the earth during the daytime, but at night, those stars are wayyyyyy too far away to be able to give us enough light to see in the dark.
2007-04-22 16:51:01 · answer #3 · answered by C. Min. 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Light energy drops of at the square of the distance.
That means, you move a light twice as far away, you only receive a quarter of the light energy.
Move your light 10 times as far away, and it will appear 100 times as dim.
Move it a 1000 times as far away, and it will appear 1 million times as dim (1000 x 1000).
The nearest star after the sun, is about 250,000 times as far away from us as the sun. That means, if it was about the same intrinsic brightness, it would appear 250,000 x 250,000 times as dim.
You do the sum. And that is the nearest star.
2007-04-22 16:56:42 · answer #4 · answered by nick s 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because most of the stars are too dim to send enough photons for your eyes to register. See 'Oobler's paradox' and 'Hubble Deep Field'.
2007-04-22 16:52:53 · answer #5 · answered by eri 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is Olbers' paradox. See the source for a description and some explanations.
2007-04-22 17:02:00 · answer #6 · answered by campbelp2002 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋