Can divine revelation which has been translated even once be called the Absolute Word of God ?

Question

"The word of God" means the words are exactly as revealed (original language of the Messenger).

If I take a speech by the President of the United States, translate it into French and then publish it as the exact "President's Speech" I would be called a liar. The President never spoke in French and I could never say it was "his" speech. In fact it could only be called the closest translation of his speech but it can never be called "his words"; And even if I published his speech in English (as was the original) changed a few words and then put parenthesis around the entire speech and said this was his exact speech I would be imprisoned. If I changed even one single word it would no longer be the exact words of the President.

If Revelation is ever translated into a different language then it is no longer the "Word of God" , it would be the closest translation perhaps but NEVER the absolute WORD OF GOD.

If a single word in an entire book is changed the entire book is no longer the absolute "Word of God" .

This is the high standard held by people who do not want to base their life and everlasting future on books that have been changed or altered from their original form in even the slightest way.

If a religion cannot show you the original texts from the time of the Prophet that revealed the words of God then be ready for lots of manmade confusion and lots of editions/versions.



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Answer 1

I cant believe I'm even answering this "question". Are you an idiot or something? Word dont stand alone. They represent Things (tables, trees, igloos, and yes, idiots), and Ideas (freedom, love, mercy, hate,). So, although "words" may change and may need to be translated, what they represent do not. Now please, get a glass of milk and go back to bed.....theBerean

Answer 2

Two things:

1. I agree with your premise that translations aren't exact. And God's word can be found in the original language and there are a bunch of ancient texts you can go to. There are classes you can take. So you can get what you desire if you want to work that hard.

2. The Word of God/Creator is not like the words you and I (created) speak. Since God made our brains and our hears, it is not a question of being able to hear. It is a matter of not following God's instruction.

So even if the president said for everyone to jump up and down 5 times, the translation into French would not be so crude as to prevent those speaking French from jumping up and down 5 times. Those that didn't, didn't acknowledge the president having authority over them.

It is the same with God.

Answer 3

>>"This is the high standard held by people who do not want to base their life and everlasting future on books that have been changed or altered from their original form in even the slightest way."<<

if you haven't already looked into it, I'd suggest finding something about the lore around the original Septugiant, the short of it is that they wanted a copy of the torah for the Library of Alexandria, but in greek, so basically they collected an assembly of 72 heavily learned rabbis that thoroughly knew both languages, and all of them independently translated the whole thing, and even though they were all individually doing it, they all came up with exactly the same wording, over the whole thing. and that allowed it to be considered an entirely accurate translation.

in JUDAISM we consider for the distinction between original text and the fallibility of translating within human languages.

but I agree with the jist of what your saying. if you *really* want to truly understand bibical texts you kinda gotta learn Ancient Hebrew, Latin, and Greek, >_< I did actually talk to one person who at least said that they did exactly that.

Answer 4

I would not think so. I agree with you for the whole translation thing. Aside from that, translations aren't absolutely accurate. There are different meanings (even if very tiny differences) and connotations attributed to different words, even if they are synonyms. Take a look at any language converted into any other language, and you'll see that this is quite often where nothing remains exact. You still get a general idea of what happened though.

Answer 5

That's a great question. However, I believe you are misguided about what the "word of God" is. Yes, the original manuscripts are inspired (God-breathed) and are infallible and inerrant. Yes, we do not have them today. What we do have are extant (existing) manuscripts and copies of the original (over 5500 New Testament records). The reason is the written word leads us to the living Word (Jesus Christ) (John 5:39). The written word is not an end in and of itself, it was God's revelation of Himself to us culminating in the person and work of His Son. The original documents themselves were never meant to be worshiped and adored as God, that would be idolatry which man has the propensity to do (Romans 1:21-24). If we still had the originals, they would be kept in a shrine somewhere and people would make the pilgrimages, rub the glass for luck, and do some ridiculous rituals which would be a substitute for worshiping the true and living God. Look at all the foms of worship which the church has sustituted for God (Mary, eucharist, saint worship, worship of relics, even crosses and symbols).
Yes, the manuscripts, copies, and translations are the word of God as well because they are taken from a perfect original. Did you know that the NT documents are over 99% in tact. That is an amazing miracle of God preserving His word through persecution and the imperfections of man. You can't name me one document in antiquity that comes close to matching the manuscript evidence of the New Testament. Jesus never promises His exact words would remain in tact, but that His word would never be lost. The word is His authoratative message. When I tell my child that it is late and to "go to bed". to I want Him to obey the message of that. Whether that word is "go to bed" or "night night" "hit the hay" or "go to sleep." The authoratative message has not changed one iota. So, if a few scribal errors come along the way, God's authorative word has not changed, it is still the absolute word of God, just as authoratative as the original.

Answer 6

Here's the thing about your argument. If the President gave a speech like say Abraham Lincoln and he said that all of the slaves were free from belonging to their masters and this was translated into French and slaves in Louisiana heard the message that they were free in French it wouldn't really matter that they didn't hear the actual words that the President spoke, they would still be able to claim their freedom and understand what was being offered to them.

John 8:31 So Jesus said to the Jews who had believed in him, "If you abide in my word, you are truly my disciples, 32 and you will know the truth, and the truth will set you free."

Answer 7

Yes it can. A book by Mark Twain is still by Mark Twain whether or not it is in English, Spanish, Russian, Swahili, Hindi, etc.

A "divine revelation" still exists in any language, though I do not believe there are any divine revelations. Regardless, the originial texts of any religion do not exist (this goes for the Bible and the Qur'an) and there is nothing to verify that the most modern editions, even in the original language, is the same as it was "originally uttered".

Additionally, languages change over time. The English word "you" originally meant only "you" in the plural, the singular was "thou", a word now archaic. There used to be a word meaning "you two", seperate from both of them. This word does not exist at all in English anymore.

Answer 8

Why is your concept of God so small. Do you think He died after a few books were given out.

He is Alive and here now ... in you. The source of all life is in you ... and all of us too.

He has already talked to you many times.

The absolute word of God is what He just told you. Books can contain great wisdom, but you cannot freeze Gods words for all time with wrong understanding. He won't let you.

Interesting question ... enjoyed it.

Peace,
Jonnie

Answer 9

Dear Metzizah,

I see that you got an excellent answer from ROMANS324.

I am wondering if the one that you worship might be just a bit too small to worship.

I would just like to add my suggestion that you will find much on this subject in Josh McDowell's book Evidence That Demands a Verdict.

Answer 10

If you try to prove anything for the sole purpose of proving some other doctrine wrong. Then I believe you would be breaking the Law. For you are seeking proof of a doctrine man has decided to be more important than another doctrine.
The Law was replaced by Grace.