18. For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add onto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book.
19. And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
Yet, I have counted more than one hundred places where words were added or taken away in various publications of the New Testament. There are no plagues spoken of in history where the above words were accounted as the reason. I hear no words from Shouters that have said "God has taken away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city because of changes made in the text of the revelations.
2007-04-21 11:50:22 · 10 answers · asked by Terry 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
That is one hundred places in the revelations.
2007-04-21 12:17:21 · update #1
What a bunch of hypocrites. The changes were made in the revelations. When you chidren of a lesser God can't answer honestly you run in any direction, but toward the truth.
2007-04-21 12:20:45 · update #2
And Y'all wonder why people of knowledge ignore your words.
Thank you for making a few more possible converts shy away.
2007-04-21 12:22:12 · update #3
that is because it is a fairy tale it has nothing to do with the real world
2007-04-21 11:57:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
Those verses in the book of Revelation refer to the book of Revelation only (though one should apply the same rule to each book of scripture individually, but not collectively). When the book of Revelation was written the Bible as we know it was not compiled, nor was every book even written at that time. The apostle John wrote his epistles and the gospel of John after he wrote the book of Revelation.
Similar words are also found in Deuteronomy 4:2 - "Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you."
If these warnings referred to all scripture collectively then it would make for a very short Bible.
Your question only states, “Do you believe you can explain why the rules set down at the end of the Revelations have been ignored?” anything that you posted after the question mark is information only and NOT part of the question despite what your email to me said, but as your email appears to want to know why, “there are no plagues spoken of in history where the above words were accounted as the reason,” and why you have not heard that “God has taken away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city because of changes made in the text.”
Just because you have not heard anyone saying that somebody has suffered plagues because they have changed writings in the Bible or haven't heard that their name was taken from the book of life, does not mean that it hasn't happened. Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.
If you phrase your questions better then you will receive better answers. Thank you for making a few more possible converts shy away from atheism.
2007-04-21 12:03:33 · answer #2 · answered by serialcoyote 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
First off, the book you are referring to is: "Revelation" and secondly, God is referring to a purposeful misleading, as opposed to translation differences. That being said, don't you ever turn on the news and hear about all the war and pestilences that are occuring throughout the world? How can you say you do not see any of Gods judgment on this world?
God gives us 2 Testaments, not 3, not 1, but 2 Testaments.
Anyone who says there is only one Testament, or anyone who claims 3 Testaments is what God is referring to. A purposeful, deceptive teaching, designed to lead people away from Christ Jesus. Now look around the world and at current events. The countries who teach 1 Testament of God, those who have rejected Jesus Christ, those countries are at constant war and are very poor and oppressed. Now look at those countries who teach 2 Testaments of God. They are the richest and most blessed countries in the world. The same can be said about those who hate Israel. Those countries that hate Israel are impoverished nations. Those who are friends with Israel, are blessed nations. You cannot escape the Word of God. It was as true then as it is today.
Praise The Holy Lamb Of God!!!!!!
2007-04-21 15:06:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It wasn't written in the King's English. English is a mongrelized language as English has absorbed many other languages. That is why we have many words that mean the same thing and one word that can mean different thing according to how they are used in a sentence. Words take on new meanings. For instance when I was growning up, the word gay just meant happy.
One time I said something about John the Baptiser. I was corrected that it was John the Baptist. Well the word in Aramaic that was used meant someone who baptises. In English Baptiser and Baptist is a word that means someone who baptises.
The newer translations of the Bible have gone back to as original sources that are available. The Bibles written in Elizabethan languages were copied from copies of the originals that were available.
2007-04-21 12:43:23 · answer #4 · answered by Shirley T 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First, the words in Revelation are referred to, not in the entire Bible. Second, different nuances of translation, and sometimes corrections of a mistranslated word, do not constitute changing the contents of the book. You are making the same mistake religious people make. You cannot interpret the Bible as though it is a bureaucratic rule book. The changes would refer to a wilful corruption of the book. Most people have never, if any have, tried to change the book so that other people followed suit. If they did, they would be struck by plagues, be it on this earth or in eternity, unless they repented.
2007-04-21 11:57:06 · answer #5 · answered by ellipse4 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
I'm thinking that you must be talking about the translations. In my Bible there are footnotes that show possible confusion over what a word or phrase meant in its original language and the purpose of the footnote is to say "hey, we put what we thought was what the translation should be but we are letting you know that it could be something else too, but we are trying our best to find the right word or phrase".
2007-04-21 12:09:45 · answer #6 · answered by julie 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I can explain it in one word: Apostasy. Can I justify it? No.
Many people(esp. fundies) interpret this to mean God can't cause a new book of God to come forth. What it means though ,is exactly what is says. Which many(not all) of them do all the time.
They claim: "it's just a new translation!" "I didn't believe it that way anyways!
And as to people who say..."well, no famines have come!"
Famines have come--spiritual famines. Famine of the true word of God. Luckily their are righteous people on earth who follow God's Word and not only what's written and changed by deceivers.
Have a good day! :)
2007-04-21 11:57:46 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Are you talking about variations in translations. The original languages are copied word for word. Translations are done as accurately as possible when going from one language to another. If you are talking about something else please include a specific instance.
**I came back to see if you had clarified but it seems you went on a rant. I am still not sure where you are counting these lost words. Could you possibly cite an instance of ommision.
2007-04-21 11:57:09 · answer #8 · answered by future dr.t (IM) 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Same reason most of the Bible is ignored - Irrelvant & dated.
2007-04-21 11:53:12 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 4⤋
Yoy can't believe that book........ full stop
2007-04-21 11:54:24 · answer #10 · answered by Screamin' Banshee 6 · 2⤊ 3⤋