Apparently, the 'American' accent is technically the neutral pronunciations, meaning the easiest way to pronounce the words with the mouth. I can't immagine that english developed straight into having akward British pronounciations without being refined from something easier that would develop more naturally. So, was there a period when the neutral accent was dominant, and a transition to the British accent as people became more educated and aristocratic? Is the neutral accent used anywhere within the UK today (other than in American Embassies)?
2007-04-21
09:48:03
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8 answers
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asked by
Pianist d'Aurellius
4
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Society & Culture
➔ Languages
In response to Khätije's comment; There is actually a neutral accent spoken in much of the middle, midwest and western United States. It has gained popularity from being broadcast across the country by Hollywood. The neutral accent in any language is the pronunciations that are easiest formed with the mouth and vocal chords. The neutral accent developed in America during the western expansion because people were then worried more about survival, the language naturally became pronounced in whatever way was easiest.
2007-04-21
16:55:00 ·
update #1
Historically, there was never a singular English accent. The English, until recently, have had many different accents. This is largely because in the horse-and-buggy days, people living in one English village rarely had contact with people living in another English village only 20 miles away.
Since the late, eighteenth, century, however, the London variety of English has been becoming the standard in Great Britain gradually eliminating other accents. Even in Scotland it has been making inroads, replacing the older Scots English that Robert Burns wrote in.
The same thing has been happening in France, with Parisian French gradually replacing local hayseed varieties of French in other parts of the country.
America was colonized at a time when England was still rich in different accents and it shows up even in the settlement patterns of the United States. Today, The Englsih accents of Boston and New York are the closest to London English of all the American accents. This is because they had closer commercial and economic ties with the mother country than American communities living further inland like Pittsburg or western Virginia did.
There are two dominant American English accents emerging today which threaten all of the others. One is so called "General American" (or "Network English") accent stretching roughly from Delaware and Pittsburg to the Pacific Coast. The other is the Southern Midlands accent stretching rougly from West Virginia to Arkansas and northern Texas.
Some linguists believe that the English spoken in the state of Maine today may still be the closest to what most of American English was like at the time of the American Revolution (1776 - 1783). This is because Maine residents have been historically pretty isolated, even from the rest of New England.
2007-04-21 19:05:52
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answer #1
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answered by Brennus 6
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I don't know what you mean by neutral accent, and I don't think there really is one unless you mean a sort of accepted standard like what is spoken on TV and radio.
When America was colonised, the people who came over from england spoke in same dialect as where they came from. Through years of isolation things slowly changed into an "american" accent, of course there are a lot of different american accents. Same thing happend in Austrailia and New Zealand.
2007-04-21 16:11:00
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answer #2
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answered by Khätije 2
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2016-10-28 15:38:23
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answer #3
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answered by ? 4
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I'm not sure about that, but I do rememebr hearing somewhere that British people changed the way they talked because they didn't want to be like the Americans. Therefore creating all those British accents.
2007-04-21 09:51:03
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answer #4
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answered by ssjtrunks6187 2
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I have always wondered if a person's physical location impacts their language. Could accents have evolved because of climate changes? This is worth looking into.
2007-04-21 09:53:23
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answer #5
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answered by rc 5
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English is a mutt language (for lack of a better term) that united germanic (anglo saxon) french and latin...
So it would probably have began with a germanic sound to it...since it was the saxons who began speaking it...
2007-04-21 09:54:29
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answer #6
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answered by Julian X 5
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NO!! THEY HAD THE SAME REGIONAL ACCENTS AS THEY HAVE NOW. IF YOU LISTEN TO SOME AMERICAN ACCENTS THEY SOUND SIMILAR TO IRISH AND SCOTTISH BECAUSE OF THE BRITISH LIVING THERE
2007-04-21 10:13:03
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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No.
2007-04-21 09:51:21
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answer #8
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answered by Me in Canada eh 5
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