All council meetings are open to the public. Item two on the agenda permits any member of the public to speak on any subject, (chairmans discretion, usually 3mins but could be five) That is stated on their published leaflet. Item two was overlooked, (being the good boy, I could not intervene) Meeting closed, when I questioned why members of the public were not permitted to speak, the mayor proclaimed, "it is the law".
Now is that statement correct, in view of the fact that we are in the election month, if it is where is the law on it?
2007-04-20 19:37:28 · 3 answers · asked by bluedart 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Sorry, I should have stated UK only although answers from elsewhere are also welcome.
2007-04-20 20:47:22 · update #1
you can participate all you like -they'll do what they damn well please anyway
2007-04-20 19:41:06 · answer #1 · answered by rose_merrick 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Incumbents frequently stifle the opposition. Write letters to the editor. Call your local State Attorney and verify the laws of your locality.
2007-04-20 20:13:31 · answer #2 · answered by lcmcpa 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you should have canvassed a local counciller before hand and asked him to pose your question or why not stand yourself your voice should have been heard
2007-04-20 19:41:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋