hi
suppose
y = x/a -> x = a.y
1+a/x = 1 + 1/y
(1+a/x)^(bx)
= (1 +1/y)^(a.b.y)
= [(1 +1/y)^(y)](ab)
then :)
limit : e^(a.b)
bye
2007-04-20 12:14:54
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answer #1
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answered by railrule 7
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lim (1+a/x)^(bx) = 1
x→∞
Run a few terms of the binomial expansion. You'll find that all of them approach 0 as x approaches ∞. That leaves only the first term, 1.
2007-04-20 12:14:27
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answer #2
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answered by Helmut 7
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My answer would be 1, because something over a infinity is zero, so 1+0 is 1, and 1 to the infinity is 1. If l'hospital rule is needed then you wrote out the problem wrong.
2007-04-20 12:05:31
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answer #3
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answered by dawance88 2
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You're correct in that it is 1^∞. However, I don't think that's indeterminate, since 1 raised to ANY power is 1. I'm pretty sure the answer is 1.
2007-04-20 12:04:50
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answer #4
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answered by عبد الله (ドラゴン) 5
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Zero
2007-04-20 12:04:52
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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lim x->a million (|x|-x)/(x-a million) = 0 u = (|x| -x) = 0 for all x > 0, u' = 0, x > 0 v =(x-a million), v' = a million from L'Hopital's Rule, lim x->a million (|x|-x)/(x-a million) = lim x->a million u'(x)/v'(x) = 0/a million = 0 ...
2016-10-13 01:46:00
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answer #6
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answered by ? 4
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= lim (1+(ab)/(bx) ) ^(bx)
= exp (ab) if b>0
2007-04-20 12:13:54
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answer #7
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answered by hustolemyname 6
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Sorry, beyond my mathematics skill level.... Try an easier course. :-)
2007-04-20 12:06:12
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answer #8
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answered by bb jo 5
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it's midnight. go away.
2007-04-20 12:03:05
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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um....what!?!?!?...good luck wit that...
2007-04-20 12:03:00
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answer #10
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answered by AmandaNic™ 3
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