If a married couple(3years) has bought expensive vechicles during their marriage and the husband has insisted that the titles be worded as John Doe or Jane Doe instead of John and Jane? Husbands credit was worthless and had to use wifes credit score to get loan. Does this mean that he can sell vechicles and the wife has no say?Wht else would he insist on wording title with or instead of and?
2007-04-20 05:55:26 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Two semi trucks are paid off.
2007-04-20 06:12:11 · update #1
It depends on the state, I assume.
2007-04-20 06:04:30 · answer #1 · answered by Randy 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That doesn't make sense. Also, remember, the bank holds the title to the car. Since the loan is in Jane's name, the bank WILL NOT RELEASE THE TITLE!!!!!! I work for a bank and have several years of title experience.
If they got the financing through a third party (personal line of credit or equity loan through a property) and the car is free and clear of all liens, then he would have to show paperwork (contract between Jane and John Doe) that shows authorization that either party has the right to sell the car without a second signature. This usually occurs if a corporation purchases property and the corporation is sold or is dissolved.
Either way, Jane has to sign something!!!
2007-04-20 06:10:02 · answer #2 · answered by PSU93 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Correct, If listed in his name, then he is able to sell it all by himself. And you obviously have the same option under the same circumstance.
However, in either case, if there is an existing loan (in either singlular or combined names) the loan must be paid before it can be sold....regardless of who's name is on the vehicle title.
2007-04-20 06:04:54 · answer #3 · answered by iyamacog 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Totally ask a dealership, i know there is a difference in the wording on title. One way he can trade it in with out the wife and another the wife needs to sign papers to trade it in. There is a difference.Your right.
2007-04-20 06:07:04 · answer #4 · answered by biggdaddy1669 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes that is what it means.....it is sometimes look at as a positive (for example) if one of the two travels often, the the other can take care of things with the or instead of the and, and would not need a power of attorney.
2007-04-20 06:05:01 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
anything that you two bought together as a couple is community property. as long as you have your name on your car and he has his name on his then you are OK.
I did trade my car in for another after my divorce and it had both name on the title at that time, but i made the car dealer aware that, in my divorce papers, it stated that I had sole ownership of one of the cars. . Save your loan documents to show that you were on the initial registration for the car. save all old paperwork . I did bring the divorce decree to the car dealership for proof and they traded with me.... juast make sure you save anything that had or has your name on it. Remember, the only one looking out for number one is number one(you)
2007-04-20 06:21:06 · answer #6 · answered by Hi its me again 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't like that insistence. It depends on the state, but some states that DOES mean one can sell it without the other.
So yes, red flags should be raised.
2007-04-20 06:03:24 · answer #7 · answered by btpage0630 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the vehicle can only be sold by the person who has their name on the title.
2007-04-20 06:00:07 · answer #8 · answered by Sam 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why do women always let that man manipulate you like that . Hes out to scam you !
2007-04-20 06:04:30 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋