Does I Cor 15:29 mean a person can be baptized for another or was that just a practice in Bible times?

Question

Thank you all for your in depth answers!

Answer 1

It seems to me that the most natural and obvious interpretation is to refer it to those who were then dead, to whom the gospel had been preached when living, and who had become true Christians. In support of this it may be said:

(1) that this is the natural and obvious meaning of the word dead, which should be understood literally, unless there is some good reason in the connection for departing from the common meaning of the word.
(2) the apostle had just used the word in that sense in the previous verse.
(3) this will suit the connection, and accord with the design of the apostle. He was addressing those who were suffering persecution. It was natural, in such a connection, to refer to those who had died in the faith, and to show, for their encouragement, that though they had been put to death, yet they still lived to God. He therefore says, that the design in publishing the gospel to them was, that though they might be judged by people in the usual manner, and put to death, yet that in respect to their higher and nobler nature, the spirit, they might live unto God. It was not uncommon nor unnatural for the apostles, in writing to those who were suffering persecution, to refer to those who had been removed by death, and to make their condition and example an argument for fidelity and perseverance. Compare 1Th_4:13; Rev_14:13.

The Mormons use this verse to teach that a person can be baptized in place of relatives who died generations ago. This is why they place such importance upon genealogies. However, unbeknownst to most people, a dark spiritualism is linked to this aspect of Mormonism. What Paul is talking about is actually quite simple. Baptism is a symbol of death, burial, and resurrection. "If Jesus is not risen," he asks, "why would you be baptized?"

Answer 2

In short, it looks like the baptism of the dead was a non-biblical practice of the Corinthian church where a living person was baptized in lieu of a person that passed away, as a means of making a public profession of faith for a person that was already deceased. We can, essentially, think of it as the practice of baptizing a deceased person.



In context, Paul writes this as an answer to the city’s questions about resurrection. He’s saying, "If you don’t believe in life after death, why are you concerned with the dead?" The reference coming up that involves Luke 16:26 answers the Corinthians’ question from another angle. This verse says (indirectly) that our decision for or against Christ is made before we die. According to Luke, we can’t change our minds after death. This offers more evidence that the practice of baptism for the dead is a futile concept.



What was being baptized for the dead? It is a mysterious passage, and there have been more than thirty different attempts to interpret it. 1. The plain meaning of the Greek in verse 29 is that some people are being baptized on behalf of those who have died--and if there is no resurrection, why are they doing this? 2. Either Paul is referring to a pagan custom (notice he uses they, not "we"), or to a superstitious and unscriptural practice in the Corinthian church of vicarious baptism for believers who died before being baptized. 3. Either way, he certainly does not approve of the practice; he merely says that if there is no resurrection, why would the custom take place? The Mormon practice of baptism for the dead is neither scriptural or sensible. Baptism for the dead is a practice that was common in the pagan religions of Greece and is still practiced today by some cults; but it doesn't change a person's sentence, for that is determined while he lives (Luke 16:26).

Recommended Resource: Reasoning from the Scriptures with Mormons by Ron Rhodes

Answer 3

Neither, Daisy Mae:

Read 1 Corinthians 15 for yourself and don't let the Mormons or Bible Commentaries fool you.

First of all, that chapter is not talking about baptismal doctrines at all. It was addressed to people who did not believe in the resurrection of Christ from the grave.

Paul meticulously tells how the Disciples saw Jesus, others, and as one untimely born, he.

So Paul establishes the fact that Jesus IS NOT DEAD. Then He gets a little belittling, as he does elsewhere in the epistles--he says WHY ARE YOU BAPTIZED FOR THE DEAD, meaning: Why were you baptized for a dead Savior. If there is no resurrection, Why were you BAPTIZED INTO A CORPSE. In other words: YOUR FAITH IS IN VAIN.

And that is all! Yet people can't see the fallacy and think maybe they were saving people in the grave--how ridiculous.

Read the hidden Bible code. The only part of the Bible that says "these words are sealed until the end of the days" at www.revelado.org/revealed.htm

Blessings and AGAPE love, One-Way

Answer 4

i can't think of any subject that would necessitate an 'emergency' baptism, except possibly it replaced right into a new child baby in possibility of demise interior of hours. Technically, i could say no. To baptize somebody into Christianity, you're able to first be an regarded Christian, this potential which you recognize what baptism is and what it potential. in case you haven't any longer have been on condition that understanding of the religion and the sacrament, then you definately are no longer possibly qualified to accomplish the ceremony. This, even with the undeniable fact that, would not think approximately a tremendously-knowledgeable non-Christian who has studied Christianity. i can think of an occasion, nonetheless, wherein soeone performs a version of the ceremony to calm a distraught or demise mom, yet I doubt it may be first rate. on the different hand, i'm neither a priest nor a theologian, so if one supplies an answer, i'm going to bow to their understanding.

Answer 5

You have to begin reading from verse 12 to get the gist of what the apostle was saying. There were some people going about saying that there wouldn't be any Resurrection of the dead. So the apostle Paul was saying that what they were saying was untrue and there will be a Resurrection from the dead, the same way in which Christ was raised from the dead. So he began to give an example of the baptism which symbolizes the death, burial and Resurrection and states "If the dead will not be raised what point is there in people being baptize.....why do it, unless if some day the dead will be raised again."

Answer 6

Read the Message version of this passage:

"Why do you think people offer themselves to be baptized for those already in the grave? If there's no chance of resurrection for a corpse, if God's power stops at the cemetery gates, why do we keep doing things that suggest he's going to clean the place out someday, pulling everyone up on their feet alive?"

Paul is not suggesting that people be baptized. He is asserting that people are doing it and asking why. People did this kind of thing because they thought the dead required baptism. Paul is using something that the people practiced as an example to show them that they do believe in life after death. What he is saying is...

"You obviously believe in life after death since you try to get baptized for dead folks."

Answer 7

That was actually a pagan practice that Paul was referring to, which some christians were practicing. It comes from the belief that baptism can "save" you. However, if you read the bible you will notice that while Jesus was dying on the cross, one who was crucified with him came to believe. That man did not have a chance to be baptized, and God did not hold it against him. Instead Jesus said that they would meet again, that day, in Paradise.

Answer 8

No they cant. What Paul is doing here, is using a "practice" that WAS being done as an example in His argument that "the dead will be raised". He is NOT commenting on the VALIDITY of the practice. That was not his point. He, in effect was saying "If people are being baptised for the dead so that they can be raised, how do you say then, that there is no ressurection for the dead". He is NOT condoning it, but just using the example to "prove his point" that the dead are indeed raised, even according to "that" particular belief. Mentioning a doctrine is NOT accepting or condoning it. Hope this helps.....theBerean

Answer 9

Our God is a just God. He has a plan for those that never had a chance to accept Jesus Christ and be baptized. It is this practice you ask about. It is a commandment to be baptized. Therefore this plan of our Heavenly Father's allows those to be baptized in proxy for those that never had the chance on earth. They still have the chance to accept this baptism or not. Members of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints abide by this teaching and perform these ordinances today for the dead. It is part of the Plan of Salvation.

Learn more
www.lds.org

Answer 10

Well I'm a Mormon (no we are not a cult, and we don't practice polygamy) and this scripture has particular influence in our church. Baptisms for the dead is an ordinance we currently do in our temples. It gives oppertunity to those who have died that knew nothing of our church, christianity, or god to accept it (it is done by proxy, so yes in way you are being baptised for someone else). I don't know what other christian faiths think of this scripture, but if you want to learn more about baptism for the dead you can visit my church's website. www.lds.org just type in baptisms for the dead in the search box. Hope this helps.