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many men in the bible had concubines which are partners they not marriaged to but have sex with so why are still rightouse before god if sex before marriage is sin.

2007-04-19 13:38:32 · 9 answers · asked by scott g 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

9 answers

your point? show me where in the Bible God told a man "have concubines". He even warned Solomon not to.

Jesus was the only sinless man in the Bible. all others had a flaw. So who's a better example?

2007-04-19 13:43:24 · answer #1 · answered by Hey, Ray 6 · 2 1

In many kingdoms including Asia, concubines are not lovers only out of wedlock. Most of them were even officially chosen by the Queen who is the legitimate wife.
Now that our society has given limitations about any man being monogamous except Kings of Muslims. Other Muslims who have money and authority in the government and religion having more than one wife has been limited to four only.
It is different from having sex before marriage in the monogamous country whose law is in effect, so do not try to make any move by circumventing it because you really do not know how it was in the times of Solomon and other Kings in Asia.

2007-04-19 20:55:33 · answer #2 · answered by Rallie Florencio C 7 · 0 1

It was important for a tribal people to have many children. That was why polygamy was allowed. Some will say God allowed it because of the hardness of their hearts. But the reference to the hardness of their hearts in the New Testament had to do with divorcing your wife.
But a tribe's wealth was dependent on many children. Children were assets.
You might explain concubines to your children if they have a question about it as "lesser wives."

2007-04-19 20:50:16 · answer #3 · answered by Shirley T 7 · 0 1

Jesus did not have a concubine, furthermore he had only one wife and loved her exclusively. And since the gnostic marriage ceremony is sex (Sexual Magic to be more precise), he could not have had sex before marriage, it’s impossible. I can’t speak for the others (ie Solomon, David, etc), as they were prophets of some other god.

2007-04-19 20:47:40 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

they had concubines so that they could have descendants. its an old practice.

they usually had them if thier wives couldnt have kids, or they needed descendants to keep land, money etc. in the family. it was important way back then.....

you must remember that life was very different then, so we find it hard to understanbd their customs and traditions. they woiuld think that we were weird!

as for sinning, only God is the judge so He would now what to do.....its not my problem! i dont want to be the judge!

God Bless
good point though!

2007-04-19 20:45:06 · answer #5 · answered by Robin 4 · 2 1

Good point. Many of these men also had slaves. Several of them offered their daughters and/or concubines to be raped in order to save male friends from homosexuality. Abraham twice pretended that his wife was his sister so that he would not be killed out of jealousy.

I could keep going, but....

2007-04-19 20:44:25 · answer #6 · answered by Dan X 4 · 1 1

Patriarchal double standard. Men in control, men with power, women relegated to socially and politically minimal roles, men with rights, women without.

Basically, boys will be boys, women are sluts for doing the same thing.

2007-04-19 20:48:40 · answer #7 · answered by Skeff 6 · 1 0

because the bible is just one big paradoxical, conflicting, controlling scrapbook. its like two people trying to remember all the checks they wrote then trying to put them in one check book.

2007-04-19 20:43:55 · answer #8 · answered by Ryan, Atheati Magus 5 · 1 1

no idea. then again, thats not the only fallacy in the bible.

2007-04-19 20:43:24 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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