We recently terminated an employee 8 months into a one year contract who was also contracted the year before. According to the contract, we can terminate without cause by giving two weeks severence, which we did to avoid the hassle of just cause. He is now threatening legal action saying he is owed payment for the remaining four months.
Where it gets tricky and the bulk of his case is that during his first contract he was paid out his entire salary over the first 8 months as by then he had commissions built up to sustain himself over the summer. This pay schedule was kept for the first few weeks of his new contract before we realized the inherent flaw that he could quit and leave with four months free pay. While the remaining four months on his contract are mostly down time with little to do, he is still expected to be in the office. In truth, due to the overages at the start of the year he has already received an extra $800 over what he worked.
Does he have a case?
2007-04-18
15:27:01
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics