Prince Philip, Duke of Edinburgh, why isn't he refered to as the King. Just wondering! Cheers!
2007-04-18 12:42:18 · 8 answers · asked by krodgibami 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
The wife of a king is often given the honorary title of "Queen Consort." She has no actual power, and when the king passes away, his heir assumes the throne, and she "retires." Do you remember the Queen Mother, who passed away a few years ago? She was Queen Elizabeth II's mother. She was King George's wife (and known as Queen Elizabeth during his reign), but when he died, his daughter became queen, because his wife's title was only honorary.
Since "king" is usually perceived as a more powerful title than "queen," most queens have preferred that their husbands use the title of "prince," to avoid confusion over the true ruler's identity.
In the specific case of Phillip, he did not have an English title when he married Queen Elizabeth. She awarded him the titles of "Prince" and "Duke of Edinburgh" after her ascension to the throne.
2007-04-18 15:12:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anna in IL 3 · 5⤊ 3⤋
He wasn't in line for the British Throne, and Elizabeth was. He is a Greek, and I think a prince. Countries don't just give the title of their King away to foreigners when the foreigner marries their princess....which makes sense. What if there was a divorce! Or what Brit would want a foreigner as their sole monarch (although that has happened in the past). Therefore he is given a lesser title, and notice he walks behind the Queen in public.
2007-04-18 12:49:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Mostly because the title of King or Queen isn't automatically given to the spouses of Monarchs, but has to be approved by Parliament. Elizabeth never asked for the title of King Consort be given to Philip, so it was never granted. He wasn't even given the title of British Prince until several years into her reign (though he was a Greek Prince before they abolished their monarchy and used that title).
2007-04-18 17:11:45 · answer #3 · answered by JerH1 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
He's a consort,like 'Diana'.Only the person the consort is married to is really the monarch.
2007-04-18 21:29:17 · answer #4 · answered by mark t 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because he's not the hereditary monarch; he's the monarch's consort.
British Kings have to be of the royal line; queens can be hereditary or spouses.
2007-04-18 12:45:07 · answer #5 · answered by kent_shakespear 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
GOD Save the Queen!
Thanks, RR
2007-04-18 12:46:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
because he is from greece t and if i am right in thinking if he was not a member of a royal family now he cant be king. t
dont think greece has a royal family now. t
2007-04-18 12:45:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
a man
2007-04-18 12:45:08 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋