2007-04-18 01:20:54 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
What an interesting question! I believe that all people have dreams, and "see" them. A person who has been blind from birth probably has images in his/her brain of what they assume to be the way certain things "look". Their mental image of a human face, a tree, a dog, etc. may be somewhat different than that of a "seeing" person, but that mental image is there nevertheless. I would imagine these mental images are what that blind "see" when they dream.
2007-04-18 01:38:40 · answer #1 · answered by ~RedBird~ 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I think if you were blind from birth no you would not have any dreams but if you were not blind from birth than yes you can and will have dreams but besides that i really dont know.
2007-04-18 08:29:22 · answer #2 · answered by yader s 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Of course they can. You don't need your eyes when you dream at night because you are sleeping and your eyes are closed. You can't see when you sleep but still you can dream right? Dream occurs subconsciously during sleep specifically during the state of sleep where there is rapid eye movement or more commonly known as REM. It all occurs in the brain not in the eyes. Check this web site for additional information if you like.
2007-04-18 08:35:43 · answer #3 · answered by milfeulle 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
yes, my mom is blind and see her dreams very well...
2007-04-18 08:29:31 · answer #4 · answered by lionesspurnell 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
You don't techinically SEE dreams. It's REM (Rapid Eye Movement).My guess is that they can.
2007-04-18 08:28:49 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I really don't care whether they see a dream or not!
2007-04-18 08:43:10 · answer #6 · answered by ? 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋