There seems to be a myth circulating, at least i think it is such, that when we, when police or people working for the police independently, are undercover as in stings posing as prostitutes, dealers, etc that they have to identify themselves if asked if they are working for the police.
My understanding is that this is not so.? This would seem to destroy any effectiveness in undercover operations. For instance, if I become a police officer and pose as either a prostitute or a potential customer of one, all the john or prostitute has to do is ask if i work for the police and any potential case is lost.?
What if someone contacts someone who does sensual massage or prostitution to trade just massage consensually, but does not trade money or illegal substances for it, is that illegal? Being that it is only consensual massage, not turning sexuality into a financial commodity, it seems that this would still be legal in California, or could we prosecute someone for this?.
2007-04-17
19:07:10
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11 answers
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asked by
sdog
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law Enforcement & Police
If known, please include links to cite specific laws stating one way or the other.
2007-04-17
19:12:41 ·
update #1