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my professor insists that it was not, that there was no census at this time.

However, according to my Oxford Annotated Bible's commentary, there were censuses in 28 BCE, 8 BCE, and 14 CE. Couldn't the one of 8 BCE been the one that Luke is talking about? The birth of Jesus is usually said to have been between 6 and 4 BCE, but this is based on the fact that Herod died in 4 BCE, and according to the NT, Herod ordered the killing of all children under 2 years in an attempt to kill Jesus. So apparently 2 years had passed since the birth of Jesus, thus we could assume that if the Herod story is historical, that Jesus would have been born by say 6 BCE. But it could have been earlier, because the NT does not say how long after this Herod died, or how old Jesus was when Herod died. Perhaps he was born in 8 BCE.

Furthermore, my prof says that it is unrealistic to have people returning to their birth place for a census. But wouldn't Luke have known how impractical it was, and not....

2007-04-17 15:55:14 · 5 answers · asked by Heron By The Sea 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

have written something like that if it would have been seen as totally false and out of the question to the people of his time?

2007-04-17 15:56:11 · update #1

In other words, if it was really not done like that, why would Luke have made up the story, knowing full well how impractical of a thing that would have been?

2007-04-17 15:56:57 · update #2

5 answers

To date, the only census documented outside the Bible near this time under Quirinius is the one referred to by the historian Josephus (Antiquities XVIII, 26 [ii.1], which he says took place in 6 A.D.

But notice that Luke 2:2 says that the census taken around the time Joseph and Mary went down to Bethlehem was the first census taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria. This implies that there was a later census--most likely the one referred to by Josephus--which Dr. Luke would have also certainly known about.

There is good reason to believe that Quirinius was actually twice in a position of command (the Greek expression hegemoneuo in Luke 2:2 which is often translated "governor" really just means "to be leading" or "in charge of") over the province of Syria, which included Judea as a political subdivision. The first time would have been when he was leading military action against the Homonadensians during the period between 12 and 2 B.C. His title may even have been "military governor."

A Latin inscription discovered in 1764 adds weight to the idea that Quirinius was in a position of authority in Syria on two separate occasions.
________________________

Something to remember in all this, however. Many scholars poo pooed the existence of Pilate because there was no evidence to suggest that he even existed. Those scholars have faded quietly into the background so as not to draw attention to themselves once they unearthed the this stone in Caesarea Maritima...
http://www.holylandvirtualtour.com/quiz/08.jpg

The details on the stone match up perfectly with the Biblical text. If I were a scholar or teacher, I would not be so quick to discount just because proper evidence has not yet come to the surface. It happens quite often. What evidence did they have King David ever existed beyond the Bible? They just found THAT evidence in the area of Dan...
http://www.holylandvirtualtour.com/quiz/01.jpg

The trouble is, people are betting their immortal souls on the chance the Bible is wrong. This should be obvious--don't bet against Someone who knows the end from the beginning.

2007-04-17 18:21:16 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

"Furthermore, my prof says that it is unrealistic to have people returning to their birth place for a census. But wouldn't Luke have known how impractical it was, and not...."

Your professor wasn't around then but Dr Luke was. When He wrote his letter look how he started it.

Luke 1:1 Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile a narrative of the things that have been accomplished among us, 2 just as those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and ministers of the word have delivered them to us, 3 it seemed good to me also, having followed all things closely for some time past, to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, 4 that you may have certainty concerning the things you have been taught.

Dr Luke went around interviewing people and he wrote up an account of what went on. That's a precious historical document. I don't know why people seem to think that just because a letter was placed in the Bible that somehow it loses it's historical place in the documentation of what went on at the time. It's not like there were not a lot of people around who would have pointed out that Luke was making something up when he wrote this letter. If people think that the church altered the Scriptures and that's why they shouldn't be counted as historical documents then why didn't they cut out the part about a census if one didn't happen?

2007-04-17 16:03:57 · answer #2 · answered by Martin S 7 · 0 0

Fact is that we do not know the birth year of Jesus, so it is possible that he was born in 8 BC, or it could be that this census was special because it called for ALL people to be counted. If this was the case, then he could have called for a complete census at any time he wanted. Typically, census only counted the men - leaving out the women and children.

2007-04-17 16:16:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

It appears that Luke was trying to see a realisation of an ancient prophesy - that the Messiah would be born in the Judea. In fact, Jesus was born in the Galilee (Nazareth specifically). Archaelogical research has shown that Bethlehem was not even a functioning town at this point. Mark doesn't mention Bethlehem as Jesus' birthplace either.

2007-04-17 16:23:43 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

don't be stupid. you have for sure no longer study the bible. You stated that "In till now situations, Christian adult adult males have been authorised as many better halves as they needed" - it incredibly is basically a lie. Christians never had diverse better halves in the previous; polygamy has continually been strictly forbidden in Christian countries because of the fact the earliest Christian situations. Matthew 19:5 "And stated, For this reason shall a guy go away mom and father, and shall cleave to his spouse: and that they twain would be one flesh?" for individuals who do no longer understand English, "twain" ability "the two one in all them".

2016-10-22 11:43:11 · answer #5 · answered by arleta 4 · 0 0

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