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i.e. If Comcast received the payment maybe 2 days after the date the payment is due, is it considered late and are late fees charged? Or is it a longer time period before late fees are charged?

2007-04-17 11:26:06 · 7 answers · asked by Alice 1 in Business & Finance Credit

7 answers

I asked them this very question and was told that a late fee would apply 60 days after the date it was mailed out as they bill 1 month in advance.I complained because they mail me my bill and its due 2 days after i receive it which doesn't give me any time to get the payment to them.I asked the representative if the bill came by carrier pigeon as it is sent from in state and takes 2 weeks to get to me!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Hope this helps you.

2007-04-17 11:36:22 · answer #1 · answered by Bird lady 4 · 0 0

One day after the due date is late for ANY bill. They MAY give you a few days before they charge a late fee. If they do, they usually indicate on the bill the amount of the late fee and when it is charged.

2007-04-17 13:17:39 · answer #2 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 1 0

In this instance they're most likely to go by the post mark of the envelope to determine whether or not they should charge you late fees. If it's post marked after your due date, yes, you will most likely receive late fees. If A/R is in a particularly foul mood, I wouldn't put it past any A/R officer to charge you late fees. If you don't want late fees, then mail the check a minimum of one week before your due date. If you're late on payment and catch me in a bad mood I'm liable to lien your property (I work in construction) if you don't fax a copy of the check and give me a fedex tracking number RIGHT THEN.

2007-04-17 11:30:41 · answer #3 · answered by sovereign_carrie 5 · 0 1

Any payment arriving after the due date is a late payment, by definition!

2007-04-17 11:37:02 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

It is actually the best thing to do. If I were you I would also request a placenta estriol check; basically a test to make sure the placenta is still working efficiently. A large % of premature babies are born because of inductions which are performed under the assumption that the baby is 'overdue' when it really isn't. I personally would refuse to induce until the tests show that placental efficiency is diminishing. That's just me though.

2016-05-17 10:34:39 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

I asked one of the reps about this one time and she said one week, but who knows, I've never been charged a late fee yet.

2007-04-17 13:43:11 · answer #6 · answered by mphsgurl79 3 · 0 0

yes .. if it is given in after the due date then it is late

2007-04-17 11:29:41 · answer #7 · answered by xoooooooo 5 · 0 0

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