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28 answers

No and no.

2007-04-17 11:20:51 · answer #1 · answered by Sun: supporting gay rights 7 · 5 0

those words don't exist in aramaic, hebrew or greek, but essentially, yes. Basically Jesus taught about upholding righteousness, and homosexuality is listed as a sin in Leviticus, Romans, and 1 Corinthians (as for abortion, most just see that as murder). Jesus did give commands after His death (such as those through the Holy Spirit to the later apostles) as well.

2007-04-17 11:26:08 · answer #2 · answered by Hey, Ray 6 · 0 1

Technically Yes! Jesus is after all the Word of God who was there since the biginning with God. John 1:1.

None the Less,
Matt. 4:17 sums it up...
"From that time Jesus began to preach, and to say, Repent: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand."

whatever the case....Repent!

2007-04-17 11:59:47 · answer #3 · answered by SirLok 2 · 0 1

That's a funny thing about Christian fundies - Jesus never said ANYTHING about homosexuality or abortion. Yet they take both as the most central issues facing America. What a scream.

2007-04-17 11:21:11 · answer #4 · answered by HomeSweetSiliconValley 4 · 5 1

I as quickly as examine the tale of Sodom and Gomorrah and a passage interior the Bible reported that God sent angels because of the fact the cries of the cities have been super....... if the cries have been super, then does that propose that there substitute into injustice..... if homosexuals in that city had relationships or intercourse that substitute into consensual, why might the cries be super?..... i think of that the persons of Sodom and Gomorrah have been crying out to God because of the fact of injustices no longer basically sexually, yet bodily and so on. The act that the adult males made on the domicile with the angels substitute into certainly one of violence no longer of a sexual nature. that's what i think of with regard to the tale. to this point as masturbation, the tale you used, held a distinctive message to me..... i think of that Onan broke his duty or promise to the female he went to be with. If i remember properly, the female necessary a newborn (some thing some custom or regulation). Onan in simple terms used the female for sexual ability and broke his promise. i think of this is why he indignant God. thank you for the message, i for my area enjoyed it. God bless.

2016-11-25 02:03:14 · answer #5 · answered by brugler 4 · 0 0

Jesus said in prayer to his Father in John Chapter 17 that his word is truth. Jesus loved his Fathers word and quoted from the scriptures. If it's in the bible it's truth. We all know what the scriptures teach on this subject. It's very clear.

2007-04-17 11:24:23 · answer #6 · answered by Jason W 4 · 0 2

No, not specifically. But we've come to understand that these things are wrong by reading the word of God. By understanding our purpose in relationship to God's purpose. In studying scripture you get a sense of God, of his promise to man, of his love and desire for us. In reading the words of Christ we can see the same...when you put all of this together you can see that God would never want his unborn children put to death and that homosexuality goes against nature....the nature that God created.

2007-04-17 11:25:16 · answer #7 · answered by Misty 7 · 1 1

Nah, all that stuff is in the first few books. You know, the ones god obviously didn't mean to be literal because of all that justifying slavery part, and the killing your children and suppressing women parts.

2007-04-17 11:23:26 · answer #8 · answered by eri 7 · 1 0

No,but Jesus was a Jew,and both abortion (murder) and homosexuality were prohibited under Jewish law.

2007-04-17 11:28:08 · answer #9 · answered by Serena 5 · 0 2

The Big Boss did. He said no homosexual will enter the Kingdom of God.

2007-04-17 11:26:45 · answer #10 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 0 1

I doubt it, read the Bible and see if you can find any quotes?
As far as I know (not being Christian) Jesus preached Love, not hate, acceptance, not bigotry.

2007-04-17 11:21:57 · answer #11 · answered by meg3f 5 · 4 1

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