I would imagine it was people shadowing his ministry trying to twist the truth and claim THEY were the truth.
Nothing upsets people more than traitors from within.
2007-04-16 16:13:04
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
1⤋
The most logical assumption is that Paul suffered from a vision disorder, similar to what we know as glaucoma, today.
He speaks of his ghastly appearance, and of his difficulty reading and writing, in a number of his letters.
Whether the problem was a result of his initial encounter with Christ, on the road to Damascus, and intended to serve as a continuing reminder of his early life as persecuter of Christ, is something only God knows for sure.
St. Paul seems to think it might be.
2007-04-17 03:45:51
·
answer #2
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
0⤋
According 2 Corinthians 12:7, Paul's thorn in the flesh, was a messenger of satan.
2Co 12:7 Because of the surpassing greatness of the revelations, for this reason, to keep me from exalting myself, there was given me a thorn in the flesh, a messenger of Satan to torment me--to keep me from exalting myself!
2007-04-16 23:10:45
·
answer #3
·
answered by Bobby 2
·
1⤊
1⤋
I have heard many speculations.
The bible doesn't give a clear answer to the thorn questions.
2007-04-16 23:04:18
·
answer #4
·
answered by robert p 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
It could be his eyes, partly blind.
He was on the road to Damascus to turn in the Christians, Saul was his name,but the resurrected Jesus appeared to him in a bright light that partly made him blind and spoke to him, changing his name to Paul.
He was told to see a Christian that would care for his eyes...but I think Paul was partly blind maybe hazy vision.
Peace.....
2007-04-16 23:29:05
·
answer #5
·
answered by Donaldsan theGreatone 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
I had not heard the eyesight theory before. It is true that he does not specify. I have heard theories of depression and a physical impairment.
Let's remember that the point of that was that God's strength was seen in his weakness.
2007-04-16 23:07:21
·
answer #6
·
answered by Bob T 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
It's commonly thought that it was some sort of eye problem (he might have been wearing glasses in modern times). That's why he dictated most of his letters, and then wrote only the ending by himself.
2007-04-16 23:03:31
·
answer #7
·
answered by pkrunner 2
·
1⤊
0⤋
We're not sure because the bible does not say. Some scholars think he was losing his sight...but, since the bible doesn't clearly tell us, we can only guess.
2007-04-16 23:04:50
·
answer #8
·
answered by Esther 7
·
1⤊
0⤋
Quite PPROBABLY poor eye sight.
"Write with big letters"
2007-04-16 23:04:07
·
answer #9
·
answered by dondutkowski 2
·
1⤊
0⤋
No one knows.
2007-04-16 23:03:38
·
answer #10
·
answered by Shirley T 7
·
0⤊
0⤋