The JW god is the Watchtower and they obey everything it tells them to do which is typical of all cults. If you're a JW reading this, go ahead and click on the links below. I know your god ... aka the watchtower ... tells you you aren't allowed to read anything but their propaganda but as the only true Christians out there you should be able to refute all the claims made in these links. Try it and see if it matches up with your bible, I'll bet it doesn't!
2007-04-16 08:04:35
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answer #1
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answered by me 6
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JW's believe the Bible.
The only true God is the father, Jehovah, and the only true God is an entity other than the "one whom he sent forth" Jesus Christ.
Jesus was a powerful divine being before coming to earth. He in his prehuman existence is called "a god", this is certainly appropriate for even Moses was called "god" and also other men and also angels. If they can be described as "god", which means powerful and or divine then Jesus certainly can be. There is more than one divine being, but only one supreme divine being deserving of worshipful devotion. So your question is a false dichotomy!
rt66lt is checking his Greek NT to see if 'god' is capitalised. He is wasting his time, their is no distinction between capitals and lowercase letters in any Greek manuscripts. Besides the modern editors who do distinguish don't use a capital anyway.
EDITED
So now he says: 'the original Greek has Theon, God capitalized'.
How misinformed!
Theon is God from the second copulative clause not the third! It is god/God in the accusitive case, where it is the object of the verb in the line "The Word was with God". Like I said there was no capitalization in the original language manuscripts.
The word in question is the word theos, that is nominative case and yet it is not verbal subject because logos has the article. It's a predicate nominative, and is anarthrous, as such it stands in stark contrast to the articular (definite) theon in the previous clause. This is a construction (also observing preverbal position of the predicate noun) that signals a count noun such as theos (there is also the plural form theoi) to be indefinite.
Like I saide before:
For competent discussion of the translation issue see
http://mysite.wanadoo-members.co.uk/newworldtranslation/john1files.htm
also see my blog: http://bibliasahidica.blogspot.com/
2007-04-16 14:49:04
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answer #2
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answered by Ousboui 2
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So what if Jesus is a false god. IF that is what the will of Jehovah is, so be it.
But anything that takes worship from Jehovah is a false god, but Jesus never took worship from his father Jehovah, he worked with JEhovah's will perfectly.
Open your mind to greater possibilities. And a greater possibility, or rather a reality, is that if Jesus is God, no salvation can occur.
2007-04-16 17:15:35
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answer #3
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answered by sklemetti 3
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Try a different translation: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." (NRSV). Jesus is not mentioned, and there is no word "a".
Granted, Greek (at least Koine Greek, the Greek of the New Testament, anyway) does not have a word for "a". The word "a" is understood, and during translations it is inserted as needed by the translator to fit the meaning of the sentance in English. Since "God" is capitalized in the NRSV (ditto in the KJV), I'm assuming that it is in the original Greek, which would mean no "a". I'll check my Greek New Testament when I get home and add to this answer.
The original Greek has "Theon", God, capitalized. I can't see how "a God" would make any sense.
2007-04-16 14:50:04
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answer #4
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answered by The Doctor 7
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Jesus is a "mighty god". He is not Jehovah who is "Almighty God"
Jesus is Jehovah God's only begotton Son.
The verse you quoted shows that Jehovah and Jesus are two separate spirit persons. Jesus was sent forth by Jehovah as stated in that verse.
Jesus often called our God Jehovah "his God"
The only false god is Satan the Devil and he is called the "god of this world" (2 Corinthians 4:4 --"In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not--" KJV
2007-04-16 15:09:15
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answer #5
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answered by Micah 6
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(John 1:1-2) . . .In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. 2 This one was in [the] beginning with God.
(Colossians 1:15) . . .He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation;
(John 1:18) No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him.
Jehovah is God Almighty. He is the creator of all things.
(Genesis 17:1) . . .When A′bram got to be ninety-nine years old, then Jehovah appeared to A′bram and said to him: “I am God Almighty. Walk before me and prove yourself faultless.. . .
2007-04-16 14:54:06
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answer #6
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answered by purplemrskitty 2
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The fact that Jesus is called "A" god at John 1:1, does not mean he is a false god. His divinity is unquestioned. His power is unchallenged except by his father Jehovah.
Are you aware that Jesus called SATAN the god of this system of things?
The key is to make a clear demarkation between the Almighty God, Jehovah, and other "god's" that are inferior to him whether they be true or false.
(Sherry, I love your answer :-) )
2007-04-16 14:42:35
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answer #7
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answered by Q&A Queen 7
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We do believe that all the books of the Bible are divinely inspired, penned my men; like a man might use a secretary, to pen a letter, but that doesn't mean the letter came from her.
Jesus is called "many" things,even a god.
But he's not 'The One True God'.
He even says @ John17:3 "[Jesus prayed to his Father:] This is eternal life,that they know thee the only true God ["who alone art truly God," NE], and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent." (notice that Jesus referred not to himself but to his Father in heaven as "the only true God.")
John 20:17 RS: "Jesus said to her [Mary Magdalene], 'Do not hold me,for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brethen and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.' "( So to the resurrected Jesus, the Father was God, just as the Father was God to Mary Magdalene. Interestingly, not once in Scripture do we find the Father addressing the Son as "my God.") John1:1,2:RS reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God,and the Word was God.He was in the beginning with God."(KJ,Dy,JB,NAB use similar wording.)However,NW reads: In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a God. This one was in the beginning with God." Which translation of Jo1:1,2 agrees with the context? John1:18 says: "No one has ever seen God." Verse 14 clearly says that "the Word became flesh and dwelt among us...we have beheld his glory." Also,verses 1,2 say that in the beginning he was "WITH God." Can one be WITH someone and at the same time BE that person? At John 17:3. Jesus addresses the Father as "the only true God", so, Jesus as "a god" merely reflects his Father's divine qualities--Heb1:3
2007-04-16 15:13:14
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Jesus is divine. But not to be worshipped. There is no contradiction. A god, not God.
2007-04-16 14:49:17
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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im too much of a chicken to call Jesus a 'false' anything...
2007-04-16 14:40:46
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answer #10
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answered by Sherry 2
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