At John 2:1-4, was Jesus being disrespectful or unkind in the way he addressed his mother?

Question

"On the third day there was a wedding in Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there. Now both Jesus and His disciples were invited to the wedding. And when they ran out of wine, the mother of Jesus said to Him, “They have no wine.”
Jesus said to her, “Woman, what does your concern have to do with Me? My hour has not yet come.”

Just to let everyone know.
I know that Jesus was not-- nor could he ever be, disrepectful to his mother. I was wanting to get other opinions. I see most of you feel as I do.

Answer 1

It seems the word that makes the statement appear harsh is the term"woman" Today, for someone to address his mother as “woman” and to say to her “what have I to do with you?” would likely be considered disrespectful, even insulting. But to lay such charges against Jesus would be to ignore the cultural and linguistic context of the event. An understanding of the usage of these expressions in Bible times would be helpful.Used in addressing a woman, it is a term not of reproof or severity, but of endearment or respect.
"This is not a rebuke, nor an impolite term, nor an indication of a lack of affection . . . It was Jesus’ normal, polite way of addressing women.” The Anchor Bible
the expression “what have I to do with you?” This is apparently a common Jewish idiom that appears a number of times in the Bible. For example, at 2 Samuel 16:10, we find David stopping Abishai from killing Shimei by saying: “What do I have to do with you men, you sons of Zeruiah? Thus let him call down evil, because Jehovah himself has said to him, ‘Call down evil upon David!’” Likewise, we read at 1 Kings 17:18 that the widow of Zarephath, upon finding that her son had died, said to Elijah: “What do I have to do with you, O man of the true God? You have come to me to bring my error to mind and to put my son to death.”
From these Bible examples, we can see that the expression “what have I to do with you?” is often used, not to show disdain or arrogance, but to refuse involvement in some proposed or suggested action or to express a difference in viewpoint or opinion.

Answer 2

It reads that way, doesn't it? Or how about in Luke, after searching for him for 3 days and he says, "Didn't you know I'd be in my father's house?" No apologies, no sympathy for what he put his parents through - just a typical 12-year-old.
But I think it's important to understand that throughout the Gospel of John there's added emphasis that Jesus does ONLY the will of the Father; everything he speaks, everything he does which may explain his reluctance but not his abruptness. Some Scripture scholars say that he is honor bound to fulfill his mother's wishes here because the 4th commandment can't be violated.

Answer 3

The Gospel of John was written originally in the Greek language. The word used and translated "woman" is the word "gunē", which was considered a term of respect in the Greek language. At the time the King James Bible was translated (400 years ago while Shakespeare was still alive), the term "woman" was also considered a term of respect. That is why the translators choose it then. Today, 400 years later, it would not be considered a respectful term (languages change). Newer translation use the word "dear", or the phrase "dear woman" to reflect that Jesus' words were respectful.

Answer 4

Jesus is the Seed of the Woman (Genesis 3), in His humanity. Jesus is the new wine in His hour also. Jesus honored His parents in every way.

Also, I don't think Jesus was baptized yet, so, His earthly ministry as a man anointed by the Holy Spirit & God hadn't started yet.

Answer 5

No, Jesus was never unkind or disrespectful to anyone including his mother. But on the other hand, he was about his father's business. His concern was not so much for wordly things but spiritual things. Eventhough he blessed them to get the wine his hour had not yet come to do what he was born to do. Save his people from their sins. That was his main concern and his purpose. Jesus had no sin, he could never be anything like us. But he teaches us that we should be like him which is "Perfect" not in our humanity but in our love for God.

Answer 6

Read on, then he went and changed water into wine. That is just his way to let her know that he will fix the problem, not to worry, the hour that Judas and the others looking for Jesus has not yet come. He will make thing right, she need not to worry yet. He already knew what he had to do for us, die on the cross and shed his blood to cover us so we can be forgiven of our sins. That was his way of letting her know ahead of time. So, do you find that in any way disrespectful? Blessed be Always -

Answer 7

No, he was not being disrespectful at all. He was having a simple disagreement with his mother. Jesus did not think that the small problems of everyday life were what He was supposed to take care of or that He was ready to start His ministry. Mary knew that this was what He was called to do and that He was ready. She understood Jesus even better than He understood Himself (most mothers do).

Is it any wonder we ask Mary to interceed on our behalf.

Answer 8

Neither he was stating a fact. Read The book of Daniel, Chapter 9. Jesus was referencing the appointed hour of the coming of the Messiah as prophisied by Daniel.

Answer 9

I've struggled with that in the past. But no. It does sound like it to our ears - but the problem lies in cultural/linguistic differences. The koine (coin-ay) Greek language is much deeper than our own English. This was the language that the New Testament was written in.

In fact the original word that Jesus used was one of the highest respect - though when translated into English something is lost in the translation.

Answer 10

Remember this was a very long time ago. What was socially acceptable then is not the same as today. That plus this is a different culture. I promise that Jesus was not disrespectful to his mother, just because by our standards, it seems harsh.