Put it another way, Pilate washed his hands the instant before condemning Jesus to death. Pilate did not want to be crucified for choosing Jesus over Caesar - not that Jesus was any threat to Caesar other than being the Son of God AND King of the Jews - descended from King David, King Solomon et al.
Pilate would have been the first Christian martyr rather than St. Stephen. Instead, Pilate delayed the Roman destruction of Jerusalem by roughly 40 years.
2007-04-16 03:58:01
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Your question hits two different levels.
1. If we believe in an omnipotent (all powerfull), omnicient
(all knowing), God; then by definition, He is soverign (in
control) of all things.
If we believe Him to be anything less, than we must
explain this by either re-interpreting the scripture to show
God as not having the above attributes, and/or explain
God's lack of control by attributing to Him a self-imposed
moratorium on exercising these attributes.
The former (re-interpreting) leads to more theological
problems than it solves, and turns a very simple faith into
a theo-legalistic maze.
The latter, (God abdicating control), leads to a
theology of works-righteousness, where man has the
ability to redeem himself through right choices, and
makes Christ's substitutionary death on the cross both
unnecessary and ineffective. If grace is defined as
unmerited favor toward one who has commited an
inexcusable offense, then it by definition cannot be
earned.
2. As to Pilate, his decision was determined by his
complicity with the Jewish leaders (he was after all a
politician - in spite of his contempt for the Jews), his fear of
Rome (the crowd was screaming that if he released Jesus
he was a traitor to Ceasar - a charge which had earned
one of Pilates own benefactors a knife and a trip to the
Tiber river), and his ignorance of the ministry of Jesus,
whom he dismissed as just another crackpot from Gallilee.
Instead of making a decision, he tried to outfox the
Sanhedrin (who were obviously trying to kill two birds - a
Messiah and a Roman - with one stone) by
magnanomously throwing the decision back to the people.
He figured they would surely pick the Rabbi over the
murderer (especially since Jesus had already been beaten
almost to death), but he underestimated the influence of the
religious leaders, who had threatened and bribed the
crowd to make sure Jesus was crucified.
Having once made the offer of a "choice" to the people
he could not withdraw it and save face - let alone a riot. So
he had his soldiers crucify Jesus.
If Pilate had truly had "free will", would he have crucified
Jesus? We will never know, because the weight of all of
the factors above were predetermined. Jesus was born,
miistered, and ended up in Jerusalem at a specific time,
and fulfilled hundreds of prophecies (some uttered 1000+
years before his birth). Caiaphas, the Jewish high priest,
himself prophesied only a week before Jesus' death
that "it would be better for one to die for the whole nation".
God did this because it was the only way to redeem
mankind from its separation from Him. He loved us
enough to give His own Son, that we might have a
relationship with Him if we believe In Jesus.
Jesus said, " No one comes to me, unless the Holy Spirit
draws him." Listen to the voice of the Spirit and believe!
2007-04-16 12:23:36
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answer #2
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answered by dreamair 3
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Yes Pilate had free will and yes he could have chosen not to crucify Jesus.
The problem with these types of questions is the assumption that God is locked into our time frame. God knew what Pilate would do...he didn't make him do it but he knew it would happen.
2007-04-16 10:49:05
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answer #3
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answered by Misty 7
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In Matthew 27, Pilate asks the crowd what he should do with Jesus. They shout crucify! In v. 24 he takes water and washes his hands in front of the crowd and says "I am innocent of this man's blood, it is your responsibility." The people answer "let his blood be on us and on our children!"
In Mark 15, Pilate appears only to allow Jesus to be crucified to avoid an uproar from the people.
In Luke 23, Pilate finds no basis for a charge against Jesus, Herod could find no basis either. Pilate offers to punish and then release Jesus, but the crowd cries out. Pilate appeals to the crowd again for Jesus release, but they shout louder. a third time Pilate asks why? What crime has he committed? He tries to punish and release him again. The crowd shouts again, so Pilate is forced to crucify Jesus to prevent an uprising.
In John 18 Pilate also tries to get the Jews to deal with Jesus, judging him by their own law. Later Pilate mentions he finds no basis for a charge against Jesus again. They shout, and he pretty much releases Jesus to the people to be dealt with.
Anyway, I wouldn't say Pilate decided to crucify Jesus. It actually caused him much mental anguish. There is a verse where Jesus says "you would have no power if it were not handed from above, it is worse for the one who handed me over to you." Its something like that.
2007-04-16 11:06:48
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answer #4
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answered by chavito 5
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Pilate didn't crucify Him; the Jews did. Pilate stood before the assembly after questioning Jesus, washed his hands in a basin of water as a symbol of claiming innocence in matters of state saying, "I find no fault in this man, see ye (Jews) to it. The only Roman involvement was in the physical aspects of Christ's scourging/death. Since Israel was under Roman occupation at the time, the Jews had to pronounce sentence upon Him and since they said "Crucify Him", Pilate was obliged to do so, but not under Roman law finding Christ "guilty" of anything.
2007-04-16 11:23:49
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answer #5
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answered by bigvol662004 6
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It is interesting to note that his wife warned him not to harm Jesus. Nonetheless, the Bible does teach that all of us have free will, and for that reason Pilate must have had it too.
Ask yourself, why does society put criminals behind bars? Why put a thief behind bars? Obviously, unless a change of philosophy or religion occurs, one does not expect the thief to suddenly stop his larceny! He may rightfully be expected to steal again, right!
In the same manner, God can know that an event will happen because he knows the individuals better than anybody.
Perhaps if one person isn't willing and changes his mind, many others still have the same intentions? Look at how many wanted to hurt Jesus!
There are two pages dealing with how this principle may be seen at work -- direct links:
http://bythebible.page.tl/Fate-%26-Free-Will.htm
http://bythebible.page.tl/How-Prophecies-Work.htm
2007-04-16 11:22:56
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answer #6
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answered by Fuzzy 7
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i'm not christian, so i'm probably wrong, but i thought that ponscious pilate did have free will, and although he could have cared less that jesus claimed to be the son of god, he had him crucified out of envy because people referred to him as the king of the jews, which gave jesus a political stance ( as a king).
2007-04-16 10:51:45
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answer #7
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answered by §ilver 5
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Pilate was on the brink of not condemning Jesus when the Pharisee`s played their trump card on him,they threatened to tell Caesar about how Jesus was promoting Himself as King in opposition to Caesar and Pilate folded,this is the same type of cowardice that causes many to deny Christ,,self preservation!
2007-04-16 10:51:40
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answer #8
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answered by Sentinel 7
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Pilate washed his hands of the affair. Matt. 27: 24 "Seeing that it did no good but, rather, an uproar was arising, Pilate took water and washed his hands before the crowd, saying: "I am innocent of the blood of this man. You yourselves must see to it."
2007-04-16 11:08:20
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Pilate had free will to say "no."
But it was ordained that he would be predisposition ed to say "yes" out of fear due to the extra Jews in Jerusalem for the Passover celebration.
2007-04-16 10:51:49
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answer #10
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answered by Bobby Jim 7
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