2007-04-15 01:41:50 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Mary was privileged and specially prepared by God to be the mother of Jesus, the sinless man, and the perfect son of God.
The bible refers to Mary - depending on the translation - either as "highly favored" or "full of grace" - and in the original greek, it employs a tense that indicates that this was a prior state of being.
No other human being had been so "highly favored" by God - another way of describing God's grace - since just before Adam and Eve sinned.
This is why Catholics understand that Mary was indeed preserved from sin by God (pre-saved, if you like) from the moment of her conception, by special privilege, and that she subsequently cooperated with God's abundant grace so as to never commit a sin at all.
Catholics also have extra-biblical eye-witness testimony from Mary and the apostles, which has been faithfuly preserved in church tradition, which serves to confirm this original understanding.
In the end, it makes solid theological sense too, as God has always been quite particular about his earthly dwelling places.
Checkout the list of particulars for his desert tabernacle, the Ark of the Covenant, and for Solomon's temple, and you'll have no doubt of it.
All the others are merely speculating about what they believe, based on the sparse information included n scripture, and based on the particular bias of their own late-day and largely uninformed faith tradition.
Catholics actually had people there at the time, and they faithfully handed down the truth of the matter.
2007-04-15 02:19:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
That is a Catholic made up teaching
The Bible doesn't say anything like that,
If Mary had to be free of original sin for Jesus to be born free of original sin then Mary's mother would have to have been born free of original sin and Mary's mother's mother all the way back to Eve. Which would make no sense at all
Kait has it right on!!
2007-04-15 01:56:18 · answer #2 · answered by sapphire_630 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Mary had the Adamic sin on her also. Proof is she died. Every person born were descendants from the first pair.
Mary was chosen to be an incubator for Jesus. The angel ... Michael (Jesus) appeared to Mary and told her the power of the Most High will overshadow her and what she will conceive will be called holy and she should call him Jesus because he is God's son.
How could she be the mother of God if she and God gave birth to a son? God had no beginning. But Jesus was the only begotten son of the Almighty God Jehovah.
Mary was born with the original sin which was disobedience to God. Adam and Eve were forbidden to eat from the tree in the middle of the garden. Eve was deceived by the serpent and she ate. Adam was not deceived. He willfully disobeyed God.
2007-04-15 02:08:02 · answer #3 · answered by debbie2243 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible does not teach that Mary was free from original sin - she was a descendent of Adam and therefore inherited sin like the rest of us.
This is a man made doctrine to help fuel the doctrine of Mary being the Mother of God
2007-04-15 04:05:05 · answer #4 · answered by lillie 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Mary the mother of Jesus was a woman who was described by God as “highly favored” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “highly favored” comes from a single Greek word, which essentially means “much grace.” Mary received God’s grace. Grace is “unmerited favor,” meaning that it something we receive despite the fact that we do not deserve it. Mary needed grace from God, just as the rest of us do. Mary herself understood this fact, as she declared in Luke 1:47, “…and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior…” Mary recognized that she needed to be saved, that she needed God as her Savior. The Bible never says that Mary was anyone but an ordinary human female whom God chose to use in a extraordinary way. Yes, Mary was a righteous woman and favored (graced) by God (Luke 1:27-28). At the same time, Mary was also a sinful human being just like everyone else – who needed Jesus Christ as her Savior, just like everyone else (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 6:23 1 John 1:8).
Mary did not have an “immaculate conception” – there is no Biblical reason to believe Mary’s birth was anything but a normal human birth.
2007-04-15 04:10:21 · answer #5 · answered by Freedom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, Mary was not free from original sin. However she did have to be a virgin so that Jesus could be born free from original sin.
2007-04-15 01:57:47 · answer #6 · answered by TJ 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Are you severe? The bible is God's note or inspite of and once you're saying "properly do not in basic terms examine that reason it received't make experience examine the student's writing too" then you definitely're saying the bible received't make experience and also you shouldn't ought to examine any pupil's writing's to comprehend the bible. The bible is meant to be the words to stay by technique of and in case you want to added comprehend it with scholars writing's then you definitely understand on your heart the bible is organic crap.
2016-12-04 01:41:42 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was created as the perfect host to carry the Christ Child but she still had free will and could have refused the honor. However, she did so because she unselfishly wanted the Messiah to be there for her people and for prophecy to be fulfilled.
2007-04-15 01:46:45 · answer #8 · answered by Tapestry6 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I do not believe she was Jesus was but marry was just a normal person all be it goodly
2007-04-15 01:44:23 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
she wasn't. where does the bible say that!??? mine doesn't.
2007-04-15 01:46:58 · answer #10 · answered by witness 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋