From John 1:18 from any Bible translation it's clear to see that John did not believe that Jesus was God. Peter even said Jesus was God's Son and Jesus said you are correct.
2007-04-13 12:19:04 · 14 answers · asked by Jason W 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
1 John 4:9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him
2007-04-13 12:23:02 · update #1
1 John 4:15 Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God.
2007-04-13 12:24:52 · update #2
What does John the baptist have to do with this scripture. The Apostle John is who we are talking about.
2007-04-13 12:33:08 · update #3
A brief history of Christendom's doctrine of the trinity:The Council of Nicaea was the culnimination of many years of much opposition on Biblical grounds to the developing idea that Jesus was God. To try to solve the dispute, Roman emperor Constantine summoned all bishops to Nicaea. About 300, a fraction of the total, actually attended.
Constantine was not a Christian. Supposedly, he converted later in life, but he was not baptized until he lay dying. His conversion was a military matter. His comprehension of Christian doctrine was never very clear, but he was sure that victory in battle lay in the gift of the God of the Christians.
Constantine himself presided, actively guiding the discussions, and personally proposed the crucial formula expressing the relation of Christ to God in the creed issued by the council, ‘of one substance with the Father’ . . . Overawed by the emperor, the bishops, with two exceptions only, signed the creed, many of them much against their inclination. After two months of furious religious debate, this pagan politician intervened and decided in favor of those who said that Jesus was God He did so because he understood that religious division was a threat to his empire, and he wanted to solidify his domain. AFTER Nicaea, debates on the subject continued for decades. Those who believed that Jesus was not equal to God even came back into favor for a time. But later Emperor Theodosius decided against them. He established the creed of the Council of Nicaea as the standard for his realm and convened the Council of Constantinople in 381 C.E. to clarify the formula.
That council agreed to place the holy spirit on the same level as God and Christ. For the first time, Christendom’s Trinity began to come into focus. THE Trinity was defined more fully in the Athanasian Creed. Athanasius was a clergyman who supported Constantine at Nicaea. He did not however, formulate the creed since he was long dead when the creed came into popilar use in the 6th and 7th centuries in France and Spain. The creed that bears his name declares: “We worship one God in Trinity . . . The Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Ghost is God; and yet they are not three gods, but one God.” So it took centuries from the time of Christ for the Trinity to become widely accepted in Christendom.
Some questions to ponder: What exactly did first century Christians beleive to be the nature of God? Why do none of the so called proof texts supporting the trinity not mention 3 personages but 2? Why is the word trinity absent from the scriptures? Why did Jesus say that his father was greater than he? (John 14:28) Why did Jesus say that the Father knew things he did not know? (Matthew 24:46)
2007-04-13 15:16:16 · answer #1 · answered by babydoll 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I'm sorry, I don't see the problem. Jesus is God's Son, but He is also God, how could you call Him anything less?
In John 10:30 Jesus plainly states "I and my Father are One"
In John 1:18 he says that no man has seen God, and this is true (remember Moses only got to see His back!). But remember that Jesus isn't just a man, He's also God.
I think perhaps you are trying for too much legalism here and have gotten yourself turned around in circles over it. :)
2007-04-13 19:36:03 · answer #2 · answered by arewethereyet 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
John did Believed Jesus was God - Read On!
Need I say More - I don't think so - The Word of God is clear enugh.
Take Care and God Bless!
2007-04-13 20:17:42 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, let's see:
Have you read the entire chapter?
John is recountng history, as he knows it, through the vehicle of Jesus' existence before life, and life. He is establishing identity.
John 1:1 is about Jesus before birth, helping create the world in conjunction with his father, God. This is to show that they are separate beings, yet equal, as they are both God.
Joh 1:18 Is also about Jesus before his birth. It is not evident, or is difficult to make out; particularly in this language which was no match for ours, yet beautiful to listen to (as in Shakespeare). You confirm that this is true, because (if you read on from verse 19-27), John has just reached the telling of John the Baptist, Jesus' cousin, who is several months older; and whose minstry was to declare the fulfillment of prophecy: the Messiah was on his way!
You can further confirm this again, in verses 31-36, when Jesus' has finally shown up, has been declared God's beloved Son, and is now recognized as not only the only begotten Son, but the Lamb of God as well.
In conclusion, you can hopefully see now, that John did believe, and is not in doubt about Jesus' deity or his position as God's atoning sacrifice for humans' pardon and salvation.
This was a well thought out argument, and you presented it well. Thank you for being nice.
Hope I helped!
2007-04-13 19:59:10 · answer #4 · answered by 1985 & going strong 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
I'm not sure i understand your question. my bible says "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only (or the only begotten...jesus) who is at the Father's side has made him known" this means that no one has seen God the Father, only God the Son
I'm not sure where you're getting the idea that john didn't believe that Jesus was God because that's what he declares....God kind of chose John the baptist to prepare the way for Jesus...he even says in verse 29 that Jesus is the Lamb of God...so i don't know what you're asking but i hope that helps.
2007-04-13 19:28:42 · answer #5 · answered by Michelle 3 · 1⤊ 3⤋
continue on to "who is at the fathers side, he has made him known". Jesus was in human form and took on being a man so the Scripture is true. Jesus as a man did not see God. Jesus was born into this world to make the father known. In the scripture you showed me explains that if your book completes the full scripture.
2007-04-13 19:28:12 · answer #6 · answered by Dennis James 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
If you don't accept the plain testimony of John 1:1, that the Word of God incarnated as Jesus Christ was eternally pre-existent with the Father; then why would you accept John 1:18 ?
(which in the best manuscripts reads " No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him." NASB)
You are not only illogical, but you just shot yourself in the foot.
2007-04-13 19:26:19 · answer #7 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 1⤊ 4⤋
No...Jesus was fully man and fully God. He is fully divine, which makes him God...he was begotten before time. He is fully man and through Mary was begotten in time.
Saying the Jesus is the son of God...in no way means that he is not God...because he has two natures. Human and divine. It is not something to be understood with the mind as much as with the soul. The mind can only grasp the edges and not really get the fullness of the meaning.
2007-04-13 19:27:19 · answer #8 · answered by Misty 7 · 1⤊ 4⤋
Jesus is the son.
The God and Jesus being one thing is like my husband and son being in the same family.
Even Jesus prayed to God. Doesn't that prove that he was not God, but the son of God?
2007-04-13 19:27:06 · answer #9 · answered by Me 6 · 4⤊ 1⤋
Remember that Moses have seen the back of God but no man have seen God full Glory
2007-04-14 08:31:43 · answer #10 · answered by Linda 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋