Because the people who were enslaved are no longer here
and the people who did the enslaving are no longer here.
My family emmigrated from Italy and poland, and were oppressed by fascism and nazism in Europe.
I expect nothing from the Germans, Italian Government or cosa nostra that most likely did the looting and opressing of my great-great grandparents.
The question is:
If slavery was considered oppression of the INNOCENT (which it was), are these reparations expected, not from guilty parties, but from INNOCENT people who had nothing to do with this oppression. Is that the point here?
2007-04-12
12:48:06
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
News & Events
➔ Media & Journalism