Aye
∫sec²x = tanx,
So ∫sec²(2x) =1/2 tan2x.
If you prefer, you can make an intermediate step by changing the variables: 2x=u, 2dx = du, dx = 1/2 du.
Hope this helps!
2007-04-12 03:27:29
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answer #1
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answered by M 6
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hey buddy! do you know that the integration is just the reverse process of differentiation?
well, as known from differential the derivative of tan u = (sec u)^2 du therefore the integral of (sec u)^2 du= tan u + c
since the angle of your problem is 2x, you let u = 2x
so that taking du = 2 dx then dx = du/2
from the integral of (sec2x)^2 dx change the variable
it becomes integral of (sec u)^2 du/2 or (1/2)(sec u)^2 du
apply the formula from above
(1/2) tan u +c or (1/2) tan 2x + c
hope this helps you!
2007-04-12 03:38:40
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answer #2
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answered by oscar f 2
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You can find this integral in a table of integrals:
Int (sec^2(x)) = tan x + C
You can then use the chain rule backwards to figure this out. Knowing that once we differentiate we're going to get an extra 2 (from the derivative of 2x). We know we have to pull that out of the integral.
The answer would then be:
(tan 2x)/2 + C
2007-04-12 03:32:33
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answer #3
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answered by snard6 2
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Let's let u = 2x, x = u/2, dx = du/2.
Then we have
1/2 * ∫ sec² u du = 1/2 tan u = 1/2 tan 2x +C.
2007-04-12 03:30:41
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answer #4
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answered by steiner1745 7
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we know that the derivitive of tan (2x) +C is = (sec(2x))^2 times two cos of the chain rule
so to get rid of the two we put a half in front of the tan so the derivitive becomes (sec(2x))^2
IE: d/dx 1/2 tan(2x) +C
=1/2 * (sec(2x))^2 * 2
2007-04-12 03:36:28
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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When I ask the other two I work with for their best, they answer, 'Huh?' This is way down south, my friend. The most I can hope for is an intelligent nod of someone's head---no speech.
2016-05-18 01:10:09
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answer #6
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answered by viva 3
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