Look. According to the Bible we are all condemned, Gay or not.
Only those who trust God through Jesus Christ are saved. That's what the Bible says. Sodom was blown to bits because God saw that it was their time NOT because they were homosexual, but because they didn't believe what they were being told about God. If they had, they would have escaped like Lot did.
It's really very simple, don't believe the Christians that are taught wrong. We get denominations out of misunderstanding the simplest things to read out of the Bible. God judged any who were in Sodom that didn't listen to the message which was basically, "Run, God's going to destroy the city." The gayest homosexual would have lived if he only believed God.
EDIT: And about the answer below this one:
It's about Romans Chapter 1. Those people Paul was talking about knew God. Paul says so.
21For although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him,
So they had knowledge of God and did not value that knowledge, neither did they value God:
23and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like mortal man and birds and animals and reptiles.
And to THOSE people God did a certain thing:
24Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another.
So the phrases after that showed that the sexual immorality that occured, occured AFTER they had already decided to ditch God.
So again, not trusting God brought them judgement. Not believing happened first, and led them into further judgement. In other words, the homosexuality that those people expereinced came after they had already turned their backs on God, who they had known.
I really hope that's clear to you.
2007-04-11 20:47:33
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answer #1
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answered by Christian Sinner 7
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i wish this solutions your question....It describes the habit and is the comparable as adultery and fornication. The term gay did no longer take place interior the English language till the late 1700's. a sort of Angels is understood to have been Jesus Himself. The angels have been judging them for all their greed, cruelty and then the audacity to choose to rape them.. In Biblical words it replace right into a ceremony carried out interior the sanctuary for Baal worship. Effiminate is the be conscious used interior the hot testomony...youthful boys have been compelled into male prostitution comparable to what got here approximately for the period of slavery interior the hot international. the two are resoundingly condemned. study: 2d Kings 23: a million-7, 1st Corinthians 6:9,Mark 10: 4-7, Jude, Genesis 2:21-25, Romans a million, 2d Peter 3, Revelation 22:14, Leviticus Chapters 18-20, Deuteronomy 23:17, 1st Kings 14:24..
2016-10-21 22:33:03
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answer #2
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answered by porix 4
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The Bible consistently tells us that homosexual activity is a sin (Genesis 19:1-13; Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9). Romans 1:26-27 teaches specifically that homosexuality is a result of denying and disobeying God. When a person continues in sin and disbelief, the Bible tells us that God “gives them over” to even more wicked and depraved sin in order to show them the futility and hopelessness of life apart from God. 1 Corinthians 6:9 proclaims that homosexual “offenders” will not inherit the kingdom of God.
2007-04-11 21:41:50
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answer #3
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answered by Freedom 7
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The Bible does not codemn HOMOSEXUALS.
It condemns the HOMOSEXUAL ACTIONS. e.g sodomy.
Hate the sin, not the sinner.
The Bible says those who practice a homosexual lifestyle will not inherit the Kingdom of Heaven (1 Cor. 6:9)
It also says a man and a woman are to join and become one.
There are many verses in the Bible concerning homosexuality. Go to www.bible.com
This will help you out greatly.
footballdiva
2007-04-11 20:46:08
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answer #4
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answered by CatholicTeen15 2
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I don't think it does mention gay women. Certainly the Victorians famously didn't make "lesbianism" illegal because they didn't believe in it and their ban on gay men was bible based (and I'm guessing hypocritical given that most of the legislators had been to public schools).
I'd be interested in reading the relevant bible verses.
I suppose the "fornication clauses" would cover all sexual acts.
2007-04-11 20:43:13
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Romans chapter 1: verses 24 thru 32 read real careful.
2007-04-11 20:48:28
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answer #6
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answered by Fisherofmen 4
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Not directly it depends on your understanding. Two Christians can look at the same verse and take two different view points. So no it doesn't say directly girl on girl is wrong but it mention sexual perversions and that is open to interptation.
2007-04-11 20:40:11
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answer #7
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answered by babyblueeye2 2
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The Bible condemns the PRACTICE of same gender sex just like it condemns the practice of prostitution; sexual promiscuity; theft; murder; etc. etc.
2007-04-11 22:03:05
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answer #8
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answered by Phoebhart 6
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it does not specifically say women... but when people refer to man kind.. or men (especially in older times) it usually means women too....
and yes according to the bible to be gay, lesbian, or bi sexual IS a sin....
2007-04-11 20:39:04
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answer #9
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answered by Loathing 6
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you fool? You can't actually have faith or belief in the bible if you have to ask such a question.
Are you people meaning to say that god is telling you that its ok for girls to be gay or bi but its not ok for boys to be gay. What the hell kind of double standard is that?
I don't think a man and woman are supposed to perform sodomy either, whether gay or not.
It sounds to me like you are looking for an easy way out. You want your cake (the bible) and you want to eat it too(be homo or bi)
Face your sexuality or get out of your current religion.
2007-04-11 20:40:48
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answer #10
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answered by Robin R 3
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