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what did Jesus mean when he said "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" If he and the fahter are god how couldhe forsake himeslf?

2007-04-11 19:49:18 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

He is praying Psalm 22.

2007-04-11 19:53:01 · answer #1 · answered by J. 7 · 4 1

Look, God can do anything and be everywhere. God turned His back on Him because He couldn't stand to see His Son suffer. I could stand to see my son suffer, how much more so with God? If He hadn't turned away He likely would have destroyed the world. I would have. Besides, at that time Jesus was bearing the sins of the world and God, being Holy seperated Himself from that.

2007-04-12 03:13:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Your in my bread box,

The bible is the children of Gods bread, people can read it but without Christ in there hearts, there mind is not renewed and can not understand it.
So here we go.
God is holy, he can not look at sin, Jesus carred the sins of the whole world on him, not just for the was living then, but us, and the ones coming after us. So Jesus being flesh body, feeling pain, but knowing God turned his back on him for the first time, Jesus felt alone, his light went out. God did not forsake him, God forsaked the sin on his back once and for all for all mankind. If the Blood of Christ is covering your sin, God will not turn his back on you, ever. Its a good thing that happened, not a bad thing. Without Christ dieing the perfect death for you and I, God would be untuchable, you can touch him now, you can call out to him in Jesus Name, God will answer you, and show you great and mighty things. He will not turn his back on you. Never will God ever turn his back on his creation again. Thank Jesus for that. Your sin was on him too.

2007-04-12 02:56:48 · answer #3 · answered by Faith Walker 4 · 1 1

Jesus was experiencing the separation from God the Father that everyone experiences when they die in their sins. He became sin for us so that we could be reconciled back to God. He paid the full price for us and in the meantime experienced everything we experience. Sin separates us from God because it is repulsive to God's Holiness. And since He was our sin hanging on the cross, the separation took place. This is the only time in scripture you will see Jesus saying "God" instead of "Father".

2007-04-12 03:00:19 · answer #4 · answered by graphitegirl 3 · 2 1

Jesus did not say this for himself. But when He had taken the sins of all man upon himself, He could identify with sinners what it was like to seperated from God for that moment. The bible says that when Jesus was on the cross that God had to turn His back because of all the sin that was upon Him.

2007-04-12 02:56:45 · answer #5 · answered by super saiyan 3 6 · 2 1

The word "Trinity" is never mentioned in the Bible. But it does appear in the ancient [pagan] religions.


"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation." -- Colossians 1:15

Compared to God, Jesus has a beginning.


“Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father.” --Matthew 24:36

If Jesus is really God than shouldn't he know the day?


"....If YOU loved me, YOU would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am." -- John 14:28

The Trinity says that the Father and the Son are equal, but the Bible says something totally different.


"I, for my part, baptize YOU with water because of YOUR repentance; but the one coming after me is stronger than I am, whose sandals I am not fit to take off. That one will baptize YOU people with holy spirit and with fire." -- Matthew 3:11

The holy spirit isn't a person, but a force (God's active force).


The worship of pagan gods (grouped in threes or triads) were common before Jesus was born. We can take as examples the trinitarian groups of Brahma, Siva, and Vishnu from the Indian religion and of Osiris, Isis, and Horus from the Egyptian religion.


“Various objects, dating from periods long anterior to the Christian era, have been found, marked with crosses of different designs, in almost every part of the old world. India, Syria, Persia and Egypt have all yielded numberless examples . . . The use of the cross as a religious symbol in pre-Christian times and among non-Christian peoples may probably be regarded as almost universal, and in very many cases it was connected with some form of nature worship.” -- Reasoning


For more information go to:
http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_04.htm
http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_03.htm
http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_08.htm
http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_05.htm
http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_07.htm
http://www.watchtower.org/library/rq/article_11.htm
http://www.watchtower.org/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm

2007-04-12 03:03:51 · answer #6 · answered by Alex 5 · 0 3

But why did he say “Why”?

If it is as the Christians claim, then he should know why. So why the “Why”?

This is a most serious problem but I’ve never seen a reasonable answer.

2007-04-12 03:05:10 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Jesus was quoting Psalms.

God bless,
Stanbo

2007-04-12 02:53:10 · answer #8 · answered by Stanbo 5 · 1 1

its no problem to those who believe the doctrine of the trinity. however, since he is quoting scripture it cant be strictly stated that he was "talking to himself" or "forsaking himself."
...

2007-04-12 03:26:12 · answer #9 · answered by opalist 6 · 0 1

Dont take it so literal...The Father,The Son, and The Holy Spirit are so complex your earthly mind could never handel the full truth....Just Believe, and do His will, and you will be rewarded in the end.

2007-04-12 02:53:15 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

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