2007-04-11 18:12:50 · 21 answers · asked by P P 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
OMG he had like such a hard life, if he was always being tempted and stuff, what about when he was a child? and if he had a choice doesnt that make him a man and not the son of god? ( since thats what made adam and eve fall in eden, choice? )
and how come when adam and eve had choice they choosed to not listen to god, but jesus did?
2007-04-11 18:21:23 · update #1
Jesus took the form of humans. he also had the weakness of the flesh. but he choose not to sin and thus was the perfect sacrifice for the sins of all man.
2007-04-11 18:19:10 · answer #1 · answered by jytopy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The New Testament authors had no qualms about declaring that Jesus was truly human and telling us that Jesus committed no sin. Bible passages such as 2 Corinthians 5:21, Hebrews 4:15, 1 Peter 2:22 and 1 John 3:5 “witness that He [Jesus] did not give in to temptation, nor violate the moral standards of God, nor was He inconsistent with the nature of his character.” That is, Jesus was sinless.
But being fully human, does that mean Christ was able to sin (that is part of the human condition, so some say)? This is the issue of the peccability (able to sin) vs. the impeccability (not able to sin) of Jesus Christ.
I hold to the impeccability of Christ for the following reasons:
1. Jesus, who is God, is holy means that He his impeccable because for Him to sin would mean that God is capable of change. For Christ to be able to sin there would have to be a substantial change to the very nature of God. However, God himself has clearly revealed that “Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today and forever” (Hebrews 13:8)
2. Jesus, who is God, is omniscient implies that He is impeccable. Bechtle states this argument as “falling to temptation shows moral weakness or lack of power and ability. Christ had infinite power, and was therefore not susceptible to sin .”
3. Jesus, who is God, is omnipotent implies that He is impeccable. Having at once infinite wisdom to see sin in its true light and at the same time infinite power to resist temptation, it is evident that Christ was impeccable.
4. Jesus, who is God, is omnipresent implies that He is impeccable
5. Jesus is a unique person who has an omnipotent desire and is submissive to the divine will implies He is impeccable
6. Jesus is the offering and sacrifice for man’s sin implies that Jesus is impeccable
7. Jesus own statements concerning Himself in the Bible, which is inerrant, implies that Jesus is impeccable
2007-04-11 18:32:33 · answer #2 · answered by Phoebhart 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
People who say He had no desire to sin is really wrong. True, he was the Lord, but in human form. in matthew Satan tempted Jesus. When Jesus had to fast for forty days and forty nights the devil came to Him and told Him He should turn the stones to bread. Jesus was hungry. So yes, Jesus was tempted to sin.
2007-04-11 18:30:14 · answer #3 · answered by pretty shy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A interesting question. Depending on who you believe him to be... If you believe that He was both fully human and fully divine, it means that he was sinless yet due to his humanity he was able to sin however due to his divinity He was able to choose to follow His father's laws without sin because He came from His father and He loved His father. Jesus was not just a wise man but also an example of what true love and reverence for God the Father is supposed to be. It is His divinity that allowed him to do what we as flawed people cannnot. Sin not. And to sacrifice himself for all and provide a way for the rest of humanity to follow his father.
Also, if you want to be logical, one who is perfect cant be unable to do anything. So, to not sin it has to be within his ability and by his choice.
2007-04-11 18:21:38 · answer #4 · answered by Bree 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The human side of Jesus might have been able to sin, yet Jesus is God and didn't...He definitely is/was sinless.
2007-04-11 18:20:20 · answer #5 · answered by Debbie R 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sinless - since Hebrews tells us that He partook of the flesh of Abraham, it follows that if Abraham could sin because of the limits of his flesh, so could Christ.
Tom
2007-04-11 18:16:49 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the Bible says that He was tempted. That would have to mean the possibilty was there.
The Bible also says that He didn't sin, and that He suffered while resisting temptation. In other words - it wasn't an easy thing to resist.
2007-04-14 20:40:37 · answer #7 · answered by holyrokker 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sinless. He was an example to strive for. If he was unable to sin, it would have been an unfair advantage and there would not be much motivation to strive to.
2007-04-11 18:15:47 · answer #8 · answered by whosajiggawhat? 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He had to be able to sin, otherwise there would have been no temptation. But He was definitely sinless.
I Cr 13;8a
2007-04-11 18:15:06 · answer #9 · answered by ? 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
You could say that he was unable to sin because he knew better than to ever sin.
2007-04-11 18:16:03 · answer #10 · answered by Michael M 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋