In the movies, it always portrays Jesus looking up and addressing heaven. Some say that this is when Jesus absorbed all the sin of mankind and God had to look away--seeing that He cannot look upon sin. I am not saying that this is not what happened, but there is a better explanation--it is very Jewish.
Back then, they did not have multiple copies of the Tonakh. They kept one copy safely stored in an ark in the synagogue. So the students and priests, back then as well as today, would memorize the scriptures (they did this by singing it). Whenever they wanted to bring a chapter, or a Psalm to the attention of the students, they would not recite the entire chapter, they would say the first verse and the rest of the students would know the rest by memory.
When Jesus was on the cross, He employed this rabbinical device--He quoted the first verse. The Pharisees would hear this, then in their mind they would immediately do the "scripture shuffle" and find that this was the first verse of Psalm 22.They would then automatically recall the entire Psalm that would show that what was happening before them was prophetic--that Messiah had to die, be surrounded by accusing Gentiles scoffing, "he trusted in God, let Him deliver", He will have His hands and feet pierced causing His bones to come out of joint, that they would divide His garments, and at the end He will say "It is finished" (which is the Greek translation of the last verse).
So really, was alerting the Pharisees to what was happening and that all what they were seeing was planned from the foundations of the earth and that He was who He said He was--the Messiah, the subject of Psalm 22.
2007-04-10 15:00:08
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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He was quoting Psalm 22. The only thing is that he uses what Jews were speaking at the time, Aramaic, for the verb, instead of the Hebrew.
Hebrew says: eli, eli, lama 'azabtani
Gospel says: eli, eli, lama sabachtani
So there are four options:
1 Jesus was quoting the Psalm in Aramaic BUT then the "eli, eli" part doesn't make sense, because it's nonsense in Aramaic
2 Jesus said it in Hebrew and the person passing the story down orally made a mistake, or translation, which was recorded
3 The author didn't know Hebrew well enough and tried to quote the Torah to make the Psalm look like a prophecy, but used the wrong, Aramaic, verb
4 Jesus was just saying this on his own in Aramaic, his language, and it is a coincidence(same problem as number 1)
I vote for number 3 or 2 in that order.
2007-04-10 22:12:38
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answer #2
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answered by ShaykhDawud 3
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Psalm 22:1 To the chief Musician upon Aijeleth Shahar, A Psalm of
David. My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? [why art thou
so] far from helping me, [and from] the words of my roaring?
Hmmmmmm, maybe a bit of plagiary by the writers of the New testament who didn't know if Jesus said anything on the cross.
2007-04-10 22:14:31
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answer #3
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answered by Terry 7
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Psalm 22:1
2007-04-10 22:06:16
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answer #4
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answered by Purdey EP 7
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This has got to be the saddest scripture in the whole entire Bible. When Jesus was on the cross and took our sins as His own - He was separated from the Father. God cannot tolerate sin so He had to be separated from his Son until the resurrection. This is probably the first time EVER Jesus was separated from the Godhead in His lifetime. To pay the price for us Jesus became sin so he could overcome it. Think about it....
2007-04-10 22:09:19
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answer #5
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answered by TOBAR68 2
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He wasn't quoting any scripture, he was saying this because on the cross he was experiencing hell. Hell?, you say, well not the place but the definition of Hell is seperation from God. When he was on the cross he was taking the sins of man upon him so that we may be forgiven. God cannot look upon sin so God turned his back on Jesus for the time on the cross making him experience Hell. So when he said My God My God why hast thou forsaken me he was talking to God about his turning of his back on Jesus
2007-04-10 22:02:17
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answer #6
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answered by Jesus Loves You 1
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Jesus never sinned and had the continuous companionship of the Holy Ghost and thus constant communications with God.. While Jesus hung on the cross God withdrew to the ends of the Universe because Jesus HAD to give up His life WILLINGLY for us...
When God withdrew Jesus was on His own for the first time since He was Baptized.. just as most of us are without the Holy Spirit most of the time.
2007-04-10 22:02:04
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answer #7
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answered by ♥Tom♥ 6
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Jesus prayer was not answered unto the father, Matthew 26:39-44. If your father was a God who can do all things, why do I have to die. Reason for this Romans's 3:10-18. It's also when The father left his son and he died. The father is the giver of all life.
2007-04-10 22:13:11
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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From Psalm 22.
2007-04-10 22:00:25
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answer #9
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answered by Amy S 2
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He was not quoting anything; he was shouting in pain. You see, he had to fulfill the scriptures to save us from our sins, and that is why he was crucified. I think he was shouting because it was so very painful.
You see, you could claim that you have committed no sin. But even if that's the truth, the moment we are born, there is a sin in us because of what Adam and Eve did (ate the apple in the Garden of Eden that God told them not to). Jesus was crucified on the cross to save us from that sin.
2007-04-10 22:02:33
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answer #10
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answered by Shauna 2
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