more to the point of the question, i'm referring to newly married people. doesn't the bible teach us that sex is god's gift to married people. so why does the bible teach that mary was a virgin, when we know she was married to joseph?
2007-04-10 09:48:54 · 22 answers · asked by just curious (A.A.A.A.) 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
You are beginning to get it together. There was no virgin and there was no immaculate conception. It wasn't added to the bible until well after the fact.
2007-04-10 09:52:28 · answer #1 · answered by bocasbeachbum 6 · 0⤊ 5⤋
The bible teaches that Mary was a virgin when Christ was conceived. She was betrothed to Joseph, but not yet married. Later, she shows up with Jesus' brothers and sisters. Presumably, these are the children she had with Joseph in the more conventional way. I don't think God would have wanted Mary and Joseph to be celibate in their marriage. Children are God's blessings.
2007-04-10 16:52:47 · answer #2 · answered by Sharon M 6 · 5⤊ 0⤋
Mary was a virgin before she gave birth to Jesus. She got pregnant by the power of the Holy Spirit. There is nothing in the Bible that says she remained a virgin after Jesus was born. On the contrary, the Bible says that Jesus had younger brothers and sisters, so Mary did in fact have sex with her husband Joseph. But the church ignores that and tries to tell you that Jesus' brothers and sisters were really his cousins. It's so ironic how they try to twist Scripture to fit their own agenda...sigh.
2007-04-10 16:54:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
This is NOT a conflict in the word of God, this is about the CUSTOMS of that day.
After the marriage agreement was made by the families they were as good as married EXCEPT Mary would continue to live at home for another year while Joseph built their home and she was of the appropriate age (in that culture and time). Marriages were arranged at very young ages, but they would not actually live as husband and wife at the time of the arrangement.
You need to understand that cultural norms of that time were very different than they are today in most Western countries.
2007-04-10 17:06:31 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible says she was a Virgin BEFORE she got married to Joseph -
2007-04-10 16:54:17 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Mary was engaged to be married when the Holy Spirit entered her.
But She and Joseph knew this was God's plan--and that she would give birth to our Savior--conceived by the Holy Spirit just as the Bible says.
So when she did marry Joseph, she still had not had sex. The actual act of sex had not taken place until she was with Joseph.
2007-04-10 16:53:04 · answer #6 · answered by Mandolyn Monkey Munch 6 · 5⤊ 0⤋
Mary was a unique case - she was already pregnant, and Jews were not to engage in sex during pregnancy. She did not, however, remain a virgin since the bible indicates that Joseph "Knew her not UNTIL ..." Jesus was born. Also, we know that he had brothers and sisters. The idea of perpetual virginity is unique, I think, to apostate Catholicism.
Tom
2007-04-10 16:58:30 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Joseph and Mary were husband and wife. After Christ was born, then they had a regular marriage with additional children. The New Testament gives the names of some of her additional children. The idea that she never had sexual relations with her husband is an old and foolish and false notion.
God ordained marriage for man and woman and intended for us to fulfill our obligation to multiply and replenish the earth. That was true for Joseph and Mary as well as the rest of us.
2007-04-10 16:57:49 · answer #8 · answered by rac 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Actually there are couples living today that are celibate and married, there is not place in the Bible that is stated that sex is God's gift to married people. That is what happens when people make up their things.
Mary was virgin even though being married to Joseph because she was blessed and touched by God himself, and for a Jew in his day, that would make her untouchable by him. And out of respect for God who himself talked to Joseph and explained the nature of Mary's pregnancy to him via the Angel Gabriel, there was never a scond thought.
If someone can do it today, it would not be unheard of for it to be done in the past.
Dont try to enclose God's power in your will, it will never fit.
God bless and thanks for the opportunity to spread truth
2007-04-10 16:56:12 · answer #9 · answered by Perhaps I love you more 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You've obviously never been married. That's actually when the sex stops.
But according to the tradition of the Greek Orthodox Church, Joseph and Mary were never married. She gave birth to Jesus while still engaged to Joseph. This both explains Joseph's absence from the remainder of the story and allows for Mary to be a virgin by choice for the remainder of her life.
http://www.orthodoxonline.com/ever_virginity.htm
(glitterkittyy, actually the mistranslation of the word "virgin" occurs in the Greek Septuagint (Isaiah 7:14) from which the New Testament authors borrowed verses to create their story of Jesus.)
2007-04-10 16:54:52 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
She was a virgin when God bestowed upon her emaculate conception of Jesus. Mary and Joseph had sex after they were married. Jesus had many brothers. Read the Bible for some of these answers. Talk to a preacher about your faith. It will help you.
2007-04-10 16:54:11 · answer #11 · answered by agkwatson@sbcglobal.net 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋