IRS has sent me both 2120 & 8332, both require her signature to let me claim exemptions for youngsters, she refuses to sign either. Will a copy of the divorce decree work? And if so must it be a raised seal copy from the courthouse? Thanking any and all in advance for info!
2007-04-10 07:47:45 · 6 answers · asked by Scott G 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ United States
Folks above don't have a clue what they're talking about, sorry.
http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-pdf/p504.pdf Look at page 9 of the attached...it has instructions for folks in your specific situation. I'm sure you'd rather hear it straight from the IRS than someone just guessing online. It's a way to get this done without your ex's autograph.
2007-04-10 07:54:28 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
If the divorce papers state that you can claim the kids, then you do not need her signature...you have the right by law. You need to call the IRS to find out what proof they need and whether or not it needs to be a raised seal copy. If so, ask if they will require this every year. It's probably cheaper to order multiple copies at the same time than one copy each year.
2007-04-10 07:53:00 · answer #2 · answered by AJ 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
You file claiming the kids and attach a copy of divorce decree that states you get to claim them. Chances are she has already filed claiming the kids and it will raise a red flag. The irs can see the copy of your divorce decree and she will get charged back the deduction plus penalty and interest if it causes her to owe money for claiming them when she shouldn't have.
2007-04-10 08:03:23 · answer #3 · answered by momma6 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why has she no longer been ordered to pay newborn help besides, if the daddy has had the youngster comprehensive-time for 2 years? truly, why do you may desire to have her sign divorce papers now? you have been content fabric to stay this way for 2 years, without earnings of marriage. At worst, you proceed as you're. At perfect, the mummy can nonetheless be ordered to pay newborn help, even without divorce.
2016-10-21 13:19:44 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the clause in the divorce decree has all the proper wording, then yes, that would work.
2007-04-10 07:58:06 · answer #5 · answered by Judy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is violation of a court order and she can get into trouble. Contact the courts and ask them what steps you need to take. GOOD LUCK!!
2007-04-10 07:52:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anita G 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋