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a one to one correspondence , but neither f nor g is a one to one correspondence?

2007-04-09 19:15:28 · 1 answers · asked by Phillipa J 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

This is not possible. If g(x) is not 1-1, then there exist x and y with x ≠ y but g(x) = g(y). Since g(x) = g(y), f(g(x)) = f(g(y)) and hence f(g(x)) is not 1-1.

2007-04-09 21:30:40 · answer #1 · answered by Scarlet Manuka 7 · 0 0

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